Minimalist IAS
CSAT

UPSC CSE 2016 · Paper II (qualifying, 33%) · Series A

CSAT (GS Paper II) 2016

All 80 questions in UPSC's order, with the official answer key.

What this paper asked, by skill▾

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance.

Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.

According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration?

  1. 1.Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities
  2. 2.Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services
  3. 3.Lack of proper service benefits in civil services
  4. 4.Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

The passage blames the tilt towards internal accountability to political leaders, a balance that was never properly struck, for the adverse consequences, and it asks that the respective roles of civil services and the political executive be defined. Training and service benefits are never mentioned.

  • ✓ 1. The emphasis 'tilted in favour of greater internal accountability', and this system 'has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences' — the balance was not struck.
  • ✗ 2. Professional training of officers is not discussed anywhere in the passage.
  • ✗ 3. Service benefits are not discussed; the job security under Articles 311 and 312 is never called inadequate.
  • ✓ 4. 'The issue is where to draw the line': the passage wants Articles 311 and 312 reviewed and the 'respective roles' of civil services and the political executive 'defined' — they are not defined now.

Remember · Accept only causes the passage ties to the problem; a remedy it proposes ('roles should be defined') points to a gap behind the problem.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. 1.Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society
  2. 2.In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

Civil servants have come to answer mainly to political leaders, and this route to accountability to society has failed; so the political executive stands between the civil services and society. But the passage never says politicians are no longer accountable — they are still meant to answer to society through elections.

  • ✓ 1. Accountability runs to 'the political leaders of the day'; this system 'has not worked out', and the passage wants civil service management 'depoliticized' — the political executive is treated as the obstacle.
  • ✗ 2. Too sweeping: political leaders are still 'expected to be externally accountable ... through the election process'; what failed is using that route for the civil services.

Remember · An assumption must be needed by the argument; reject statements that stretch a partial failure into 'no longer' or 'never'.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

The first paragraph sets out the accountability problem and the second lists 'special measures' — reviewing Articles 311 and 312, a Civil Services Bill, statutory boards and decentralization. The essential message is that reforms to improve civil service accountability are both needed and possible.

  • ✗ (a) Too sweeping: the passage says the balance tilted towards internal accountability, not that civil services answer to no one.
  • ✗ (b) The education or quality of political leaders is never discussed.
  • ✗ (c) The framers did foresee the issue: 'The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution'.
  • ✓ (d) The second paragraph is a list of measures 'for improving accountability in civil services'.

Remember · The 'essential message' usually sits where the passage moves from problem to solution; pick the option that covers both.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process

UPSC's official answer: (d) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (a)

  • The passage lists the internal means itself: internal accountability 'is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions'. That covers (b) and (c); job security is not on the list.
  • Articles 311 and 312 are presented as safeguards so that the civil service 'is not totally subservient to the political executive', and the passage wants them 'reviewed' so that laws can 'ensure external accountability'. A shield against the political executive does not enhance accountability to it, so (a) is also not a means of internal accountability.
  • Option (d) sits squarely on the other side: decentralisation brings 'decision making closer to the people' and enhances accountability to society, which the passage calls external. That is why UPSC's key gives (d); strictly, (a) and (d) both fail the stem's test.

UPSC's key is (d), the one option the passage files under external accountability; (a) is also absent from the passage's own list of internal means. In the exam, when a passage sets up an internal/external contrast, mark the option the passage places on the other side.

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

The passage names the means of internal accountability — internal performance monitoring, supervision by bodies such as the CVC and CAG, and judicial review of executive decisions — and sets them against external accountability to society. Bringing decision making closer to the people enhances accountability to society, so (d) is the one option on the external side.

  • ✗ (a) Articles 311 and 312 give the service job security and safeguards within the constitutional framework of the executive; the passage uses them to show how internal and external accountability are balanced, not as a route by which the people hold the service to account.
  • ✗ (b) Named directly: 'official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission'.
  • ✗ (c) Named directly: 'judicial review of executive decisions'.
  • ✓ (d) Decentralization that brings decision making 'closer to the people' builds accountability to society — the external kind that the passage contrasts with internal accountability.

Remember · In 'which is NOT' items, sort each option into the passage's own categories; the option that belongs to the other category is the answer.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—2

In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice.

With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. 1.Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions
  2. 2.Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god
  3. 3.Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice

Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

The passage says our duties to one another derive from religious traditions' stress on duty to god or a universal principle, so assumption 1 holds. It allows 'some universal ethical principle' in place of god, and it calls community solidarity — not religion — essential to justice, so 2 and 3 fail.

  • ✓ 1. 'Our duties to one another derive from these', and the concept of rights shapes 'our other relationships' — relationships flow from religious traditions.
  • ✗ 2. 'Only if they believe in god' is too extreme; the duty may be to 'some universal ethical principle'.
  • ✗ 3. What is 'essential to the practice and understanding of justice' is solidarity in a community, not religious tradition.

Remember · Watch the qualifiers — 'only', 'essential', 'always'. An assumption carrying one must be backed by the passage's own words.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society

The passage moves from religious duties and rights to its main point: the correspondence between rights and duties is critical to understanding justice, and justice must be practised in a community. So the crux is that balancing rights and duties is central to justice in a society.

  • ✗ (a) A supporting detail from the opening lines, not the point the passage builds to.
  • ✗ (b) The passage never calls the relationship to the divine a 'great virtue'.
  • ✓ (c) 'This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice', and justice must be grounded in a community.
  • ✗ (d) Another opening detail; the passage uses it only to reach the rights–duties link and justice.

Remember · The crux is the point the details lead to; an option that restates one early sentence is usually a supporting detail.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick.

In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Oranges

Oranges are the only fruit eaten by both B and C, who fell sick, and neither A nor D, who stayed well, ate oranges. Every other fruit was eaten by at least one person who did not fall sick.

  1. Sick: B (grapes, oranges) and C (oranges, pineapple, apple). The only fruit common to both is oranges.
  2. Well: A (grapes, pineapple) and D (grapes, apple, pineapple) — neither ate oranges.
  3. Check: grapes, pineapple and apple were all eaten by someone who stayed well, so they cannot be the cause.

Remember · To find a common cause, take what all affected cases share and strike out anything the unaffected cases also had.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The rate of population growth is increasing in the country
  2. 2.The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate
  3. 3.The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate
  4. 4.Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country

Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

The rate of population growth is the birth rate minus the death rate. If growth is rising while both rates fall, the death rate must be falling faster — statements 1 and 2 together give (d). Migration within a country does not change its population.

  1. Rate of population growth = birth rate − death rate.
  2. Statement 1: growth is rising, so the gap between the two rates is widening.
  3. Statement 2: both rates are falling, the death rate faster — this widens the gap.
  4. Statement 3 would narrow the gap, so it cannot explain rising growth; statement 4 moves people within the country and adds nobody.
  5. So growth is rising because the death rate is falling faster than the birth rate.
  • ✗ (a) Rural-urban migration shifts people inside the country; it does not change the national growth rate.
  • ✗ (b) 'Death rate only' ignores the falling birth rate; growth rises because the death rate falls faster than the birth rate.
  • ✗ (c) The birth rate is declining, not increasing.
  • ✓ (d) With the death rate falling faster, the birth-minus-death gap widens and growth rises.

Remember · Growth rate = birth rate − death rate; internal migration moves people around but never changes a country's total.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 3 km east, then 1 km north

After 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south he is 3 km west and 1 km south of the start. Driving 3 km east and then 1 km north brings him back without retracing any stretch.

  1. Take the start as (0, 0), with east and north positive.
  2. 3 km north → (0, 3); 3 km west → (−3, 3); 4 km south → (−3, −1).
  3. To return he must go 3 km east and 1 km north.
  4. (b): 3 km east → (0, −1), then 1 km north → (0, 0). Neither stretch repeats an earlier one.
  5. Check: (a) ends at (0, −3), (c) at (−5, 0), (d) at (−3, −3).

Remember · Track direction problems as coordinates: add north and east, subtract south and west, then read off the move back to (0, 0).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statement:

“We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking”.

Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) We do not go either for picnic or for trekking

The claim promises that at least one of the two outings will happen. It is proved false only if neither happens — we go neither for a picnic nor for trekking.

  1. 'Either a picnic or trekking' is true if at least one of the two happens.
  2. (a) and (c) each have one of them happening — the claim holds.
  3. (b) says nothing about what we do.
  4. Only (d), neither of them happening, makes the claim false.
  • ✗ (a) A picnic alone satisfies the 'either … or' claim.
  • ✗ (b) Irrelevant: what health authorities encourage says nothing about what we actually do.
  • ✗ (c) Trekking alone also satisfies the claim.
  • ✓ (d) If neither outing happens, 'either a picnic or trekking' is false.

Remember · 'Either A or B' is falsified only by 'neither A nor B'.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party

No man knew music, but only 'many' — not all — of the women did. So six non-musicians could be all men, all non-musical women, or a mix; the fact rules out none of these.

  1. Non-musicians: all 30 men and those women who do not know music ('many', not all, women know music).
  2. Six non-musicians could be drawn entirely from men, entirely from non-musical women, or from both.
  3. Each of (a), (b) and (c) is possible but none is certain, so nothing definite can be said.
  • ✗ (a) Women who did not know music could also have been drawn.
  • ✗ (b) Men, none of whom knew music, could equally have been drawn.
  • ✗ (c) Possible, but not certain — the six could all be men.
  • ✓ (d) The non-musicians include all 30 men and some women, so any gender mix fits.

Remember · 'Many' is not 'all'. When a group could be drawn from several sub-groups, no definite conclusion about its make-up follows.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.

(i) C is seated next to A

(ii) A is seated two seats from D

(iii) B is not seated next to A

On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true?

  1. 1.D is seated next to B
  2. 2.E is seated next to A
  3. 3.D and C are separated by two seats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

A's two neighbours can only be C and E, because D is two seats away and B is not next to A. B and D then fill the two adjacent seats away from A, so D is always beside B. D may sit beside C or beside E, so statement 3 is not certain.

  1. With 5 seats in a circle, each person has exactly two neighbours.
  2. A's neighbours: C (i); not D, who is two seats away (ii); not B (iii). So the other neighbour is E — statement 2 must be true.
  3. The two remaining seats are next to each other and each is two seats from A; B and D take them in either order.
  4. So D always sits next to B — statement 1 must be true.
  5. If D takes the seat beside C, D and C are adjacent; so statement 3 need not be true.
  • ✓ 1. B and D fill the two adjacent seats not next to A.
  • ✓ 2. A's only possible neighbours are C and E.
  • ✗ 3. In one valid arrangement D sits right beside C, so this is not certain.

Remember · In small circular seatings, fix one person, settle the neighbours first, and treat 'must be true' as true in every valid arrangement.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

There are five hobby clubs in a college — photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 3

All five clubs meet together on days that are common multiples of 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, that is every LCM = 60 days. Within 180 days that happens on days 60, 120 and 180 — three times.

  1. All five meet on a day that is a multiple of 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
  2. LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60.
  3. Within 180 days: days 60, 120 and 180 — 3 times.

Remember · Events repeating every a, b, c … days coincide every LCM(a, b, c …) days.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 3 and 4

One bee per flower leaves a bee over, so bees = flowers + 1. Two per flower leaves a flower empty, so bees = 2 × (flowers − 1). Together these give 3 flowers and 4 bees.

  1. Let f = flowers and b = bees.
  2. One bee per flower, one bee left: b = f + 1.
  3. Two bees per flower, one flower left: b = 2(f − 1).
  4. f + 1 = 2f − 2, so f = 3 and b = 4.
  5. Check: 4 bees on 3 flowers, one each, leaves 1 bee; two each fills 2 flowers and leaves 1 flower empty.

Remember · Turn each 'left over' condition into an equation — or simply test each option against both conditions.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

Who is the doctor?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) T

P and S are students, so the three professions belong to Q, R and T. Q is the lawyer (neither doctor nor artist) and R is not the doctor, so the doctor is T.

  1. P and S are students, so the doctor, lawyer and artist are among Q, R and T.
  2. Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer.
  3. R is not the doctor, so R is the artist and T is the doctor.

Remember · Strike out people who can hold no role first, then fill roles from the most restricted person; one 'is not' often fixes two others.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

Who is the artist?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) R

The professions belong to Q, R and T, since P and S are students. Q must be the lawyer, and R, who is not the doctor, must be the artist.

  1. P and S are students, so the doctor, lawyer and artist are among Q, R and T.
  2. Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer.
  3. R is not the doctor, so R is the artist and T is the doctor.

Remember · Strike out people who can hold no role first, then fill roles from the most restricted person; one 'is not' often fixes two others.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

Who is the spouse of R?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) T

T is married to a group member. P and S are unmarried, and Q (P's brother) is a man like T, so T's spouse can only be R.

  1. T is married to someone in the group.
  2. P and S are unmarried, so T's spouse is Q or R.
  3. Q is P's brother, a man; T is also a man. The puzzle treats marriage as between a man and a woman, so T's spouse is R.

Remember · In relation puzzles, list who is ruled out — unmarried, same family, same sex — and the spouse is whoever remains.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

Who is the lawyer?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Q

P and S are students, so only Q, R and T hold the professions. Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer.

  1. P and S are students, so the doctor, lawyer and artist are among Q, R and T.
  2. Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer.

Remember · Strike out people who can hold no role first, then fill roles from the most restricted person; one 'is not' often fixes two others.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Consider the following information and answer the five items that follow:

There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor.

Who of the following is definitely a man?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Q

Q is described as the brother of P, so Q is certainly a man. Nothing fixes the sex of P or S. T is also a man, but T is not among the options.

  1. Q is 'the brother of P' — so Q is a man.
  2. P and S are only called unmarried students; their sex is not given.
  3. T is 'a man' but is not an option, so the answer is Q.

Remember · 'Definitely' needs a direct word in the data — brother, man, husband; roles like student or doctor say nothing about sex.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 20

Only 95% of each day's 1000 units can be sold, which is 950 units a day. The order of 19000 therefore takes 19000 ÷ 950 = 20 days.

  1. Usable output per day = 95% of 1000 = 950.
  2. Days needed = 19000 ÷ 950 = 20.
  3. Check: 20 × 950 = 19000.

Remember · Divide the order by the usable output per day, not the gross output.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate.

Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 – 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 – 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century.

Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks – such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood – hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.

What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation?

  1. 1.Lack of sustainable supply of biomass
  2. 2.Biomass production competes with food production
  3. 3.Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The passage names all three: a reliable, sustainable supply of biomass is the biggest challenge; energy crops compete with food production; and some biofuels such as corn-based ethanol may worsen carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis.

  • ✓ 1. 'The biggest challenge ... is a long-term reliable supply', and projections ignore 'the limits to the sustainable biomass supply'.
  • ✓ 2. 'Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production'.
  • ✓ 3. Corn-based ethanol 'may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis'.

Remember · For 'constraints', collect every problem the passage states — supply, competing uses, side effects — before looking at the codes.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which of the following can lead to food security problem?

  1. 1.Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation
  2. 2.Using biomass for carbon capture and storage
  3. 3.Promoting the cultivation of energy crops

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 3 only

Only energy crops are said to compete with food production and to affect food prices. Residues are by-products of farms and forests, and carbon capture and storage is mentioned only as an unproven technology — neither is linked to food.

  • ✗ 1. For residues the passage worries about supply logistics and collection costs, not food.
  • ✗ 2. Carbon capture and storage is called 'an unproven technology'; no link to food is drawn.
  • ✓ 3. Energy crops 'compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices'.

Remember · Tie each statement to the exact sentence about it; a risk named for one source (energy crops) does not carry over to others.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?

  1. 1.Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050
  2. 2.Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources
  3. 3.Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The passage sets a sustainable potential of 80 – 170 exajoules a year obtainable without disrupting food and forest resources, and notes that nascent biomass-based carbon capture and storage could give negative emissions. But even the high projection is only about a quarter of world primary energy, not all of it.

  • ✗ 1. Even the high projection is 'almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050'.
  • ✓ 2. There is a 'maximum sustainable technical potential ... without disruption of food and forest resources'.
  • ✓ 3. Some models rely on 'biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions'.

Remember · Numbers in the passage are the test: 'almost a quarter' can never become 'all'.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made:

  1. 1.Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions
  2. 2.It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources

Which of these assumptions is/are valid?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

Biomass has 'the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources', and climate-energy models project its use rising nearly four-fold — so these models treat it as cutting emissions. The passage also gives a potential available without disrupting food and forest resources, which rules out statement 2.

  • ✓ 1. 'Highest mitigation potential', a projected four-fold rise in use, and some models even rely on biomass for 'negative emissions'.
  • ✗ 2. The passage puts 80 – 170 exajoules a year within reach 'without disruption of food and forest resources'.

Remember · An assumption the passage directly contradicts is invalid, however plausible it sounds.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—2

We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.

Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run

The passage calls the green revolution a mixed blessing: reliance on uniform high-yield crops has caused a 'dangerous dwindling of biodiversity' in our food and has put us 'at risk for food shortages in future'. So it can threaten both biodiversity and long-run food security.

  • ✗ (a) 'Only due to green revolution' is too extreme; the passage links chemicals to high-yield varieties, not as the sole cause of dependence.
  • ✗ (b) A plain factual link that leaves out the risk the passage is warning about.
  • ✗ (c) 'The only way' runs against the passage, which says this practice risks future food shortages.
  • ✓ (d) 'Dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply' and 'at risk for food shortages in future'.

Remember · A 'critical inference' carries the author's warning; drop options with 'only' and neutral facts that miss the author's concern.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 48 minutes

The class lasts 207 minutes. Four periods have three 5-minute rests between them, since the last period ends the class, so each period is (207 − 15) ÷ 4 = 48 minutes.

  1. 11:00 am to 2:27 pm = 3 h 27 min = 207 minutes.
  2. Four periods have three rests between them: 3 × 5 = 15 minutes.
  3. Teaching time = 207 − 15 = 192 minutes; each period = 192 ÷ 4 = 48 minutes.
  4. Check: 48 + 5 + 48 + 5 + 48 + 5 + 48 = 207.

Remember · n periods in a block have n − 1 breaks between them: subtract the breaks, then divide by n.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 23 minutes

Because the faster member of each pair must bring the lamp back, A (1 minute) should escort each of the others: 10 + 1 + 7 + 1 + 2 = 21 minutes. Taking the lamp back and crossing again without it adds A's 1 + 1 minutes, giving 23.

  1. The faster person of each pair returns with the lamp, so the fastest, A, should pair with each of the others.
  2. A and D cross: 10 min; A returns: 1 min.
  3. A and C cross: 7 min; A returns: 1 min.
  4. A and B cross: 2 min. All are across after 10 + 1 + 7 + 1 + 2 = 21 min.
  5. A takes the lamp back (1 min) and crosses again without it (1 min): 21 + 2 = 23 minutes.
  6. Check: any pair without A sends back B or slower, which only adds time.

Remember · Read the special rules first: here the faster partner must return, so the fastest person should shuttle everyone.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) less sweet than that in C

Sweetness depends on sugar per unit of water. A has 30/180 = 1/6, B has 40/280 = 1/7 and C has 20/100 = 1/5 g per ml, so B is the weakest and is less sweet than C.

  1. Sugar per ml of water — A: 30/180 = 1/6; B: 40/280 = 1/7; C: 20/100 = 1/5.
  2. 1/7 < 1/6 < 1/5, so B is the least sweet of the three.
  3. So B is less sweet than C (and than A); (a), (b) and (c) are false.

Remember · Compare concentrations as ratios; reducing each to a simple fraction (1/5, 1/6, 1/7) makes the order obvious.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 21

If there are n students, each gives Rs. n, so the collection is n². With the extra Rs. 2 it is 443, so n² = 441 and n = 21.

  1. n students each give Rs. n: total = n².
  2. n² + 2 = 443, so n² = 441 and n = 21.
  3. Check: 21 × 21 = 441; 441 + 2 = 443.

Remember · 'As many rupees as the number of people' makes the total a perfect square — look for the square near the figure.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 5

She answered 7 + 12 + 18 = 37 problems correctly, while a pass needs 60% of 70 = 42. She needed 5 more correct answers.

  1. Correct answers: 70% of 10 = 7; 40% of 30 = 12; 60% of 30 = 18. Total = 37.
  2. Pass mark: 60% of 70 = 42 questions.
  3. More needed: 42 − 37 = 5.

Remember · With equal marks per question, turn every percentage into a count of questions and compare counts.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 12

Eighteen is three-fourths of the boys, so there are 24 boys. They are two-thirds of the class, so the class has 36 students and 12 of them are girls.

  1. Boys = 18 ÷ 3/4 = 24.
  2. Class = 24 ÷ 2/3 = 36.
  3. Girls = 36 − 24 = 12.

Remember · Work back from the part to the whole one fraction at a time: whole = part ÷ fraction.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B
  2. 2.Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C
  3. 3.B is older than C

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) A is older than C

Statement 1 gives A ≥ B and statement 3 gives B > C, so A is certainly older than C. Each other option rests on an 'either … or' that may go the other way, or on a comparison the statements never make.

  1. Statement 1: A ≥ B. Statement 2: D ≥ C. Statement 3: B > C.
  2. Chain: A ≥ B > C, so A > C.
  3. Check the rest: A may equal B; D may equal C; B and D are never compared.
  • ✗ (a) A and B may be of the same age.
  • ✗ (b) Nothing compares B with D.
  • ✗ (c) C and D may be of the same age.
  • ✓ (d) A ≥ B and B > C give A > C.

Remember · Write 'either the same age or older' as ≥, then chain the signs; one strict > in the chain makes the result strict.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 80%

The overall average of Rs. 5000 is Rs. 200 below the men's average and Rs. 800 above the women's. So men and women are in the ratio 800 : 200 = 4 : 1, and men are 80% of the staff.

  1. Let the share of men be m; women are 1 − m.
  2. 5200m + 4200(1 − m) = 5000, so 1000m = 800 and m = 0.8.
  3. Men = 80%.
  4. Check by alligation: distances 5200 − 5000 = 200 and 5000 − 4200 = 800; men : women = 800 : 200 = 4 : 1.

Remember · Alligation: each group's share is proportional to the other group's distance from the overall average.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) E

Hockey cannot be in A, B or C (their balls are known) or in D and E, so it is in F. Golf is not in D, so golf must be in E, leaving football for D.

  1. Stated outright: A — tennis, orange; C — cricket, green; B — volleyball.
  2. Hockey is not in D or E, and A, B, C already hold other balls, so hockey is in F.
  3. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E and football is left for D.

Remember · In box puzzles, fix what is stated outright, then place the item with the most 'not' clues; note what stays open before answering.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) F is painted indigo

Hockey is in F, and F can be neither blue nor yellow; orange, green and violet belong to A, C and E, so F is indigo. B and D take blue and yellow in an order the clues never fix, so only (b) is certain.

  1. Stated outright: A — tennis, orange; C — cricket, green; B — volleyball.
  2. Hockey is not in D or E, and A, B, C already hold other balls, so hockey is in F.
  3. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E and football is left for D.
  4. Golf is in the violet box, so E is violet.
  5. F (hockey) is neither blue nor yellow; orange, green and violet are taken, so F is indigo.
  6. B and D share blue and yellow, and no clue says which is which.
  • ✗ (a) D may be blue or yellow — not fixed.
  • ✓ (b) F must be indigo.
  • ✗ (c) B may be blue or yellow — not fixed.
  • ✗ (d) Only (b) is certain.

Remember · In box puzzles, fix what is stated outright, then place the item with the most 'not' clues; note what stays open before answering.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.

The football is in the box of which colour?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

Football ends up in box D. But D and B share blue and yellow, and no clue decides which of them is which, so the colour of the football's box cannot be determined.

  1. Stated outright: A — tennis, orange; C — cricket, green; B — volleyball.
  2. Hockey is not in D or E, and A, B, C already hold other balls, so hockey is in F.
  3. Golf is not in D, so golf is in E and football is left for D.
  4. Golf is in the violet box, so E is violet.
  5. F (hockey) is neither blue nor yellow; orange, green and violet are taken, so F is indigo.
  6. B and D share blue and yellow, and no clue says which is which.

Remember · In box puzzles, fix what is stated outright, then place the item with the most 'not' clues; note what stays open before answering.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 10%

Take Z = 100: then X = 80 and Y = 72. Y is 8 less than X, and measured against X that is 8/80 = 10%.

  1. Let Z = 100. Then X = 80 and Y = 72.
  2. Y is less than X by 80 − 72 = 8.
  3. As a percentage of X: 8/80 × 100 = 10%.

Remember · 'By what % is Y less than X' uses X as the base. Taking the reference number as 100 avoids fractions.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 4

A train leaving at 6 AM arrives 42 hours later, at midnight, and can start back only at the next 6 AM — so each one-way trip uses 2 days and a round trip 4 days. With a departure needed every day, 4 trains keep the shuttle going.

  1. Leaving A at 6 AM on day 1, a train reaches B 42 hours later — midnight at the end of day 2.
  2. It starts back from B at 6 AM on day 3 and reaches A at midnight at the end of day 4.
  3. It leaves A again at 6 AM on day 5: one full cycle takes 4 days.
  4. A train must leave A every day, so 4 trains are needed (trains 1–4 leave A on days 1–4; train 1 is back for day 5).
  5. Check: the same 4 trains also give a daily 6 AM departure from B, each leaving B two days after leaving A.

Remember · For a shuttle, find one train's full cycle, waiting included; trains needed = cycle in days × daily departures from one end.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 4 cm

The whole sheet of 12 × 8 = 96 cm² becomes the surface of the cube. A closed cube has six square faces, so 6s² = 96, s² = 16 and each side is 4 cm.

  1. Area of the sheet = 12 × 8 = 96 cm².
  2. Closed cube: 6s² = 96, so s² = 16 and s = 4 cm.
  3. Check: 6 × 4 × 4 = 96.

Remember · Sheet-to-solid problems: the sheet's area equals the surface area of the solid made from it.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 32

Each question can be answered in 2 ways, so there are 2⁵ = 32 different answer sequences. If no two candidates repeat a sequence, at most 32 candidates are possible.

  1. Each of the 5 questions has 2 possible answers.
  2. Distinct sequences = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2⁵ = 32.
  3. No two candidates share a sequence, so the maximum is 32.

Remember · Independent choices multiply: k options at each of n places give kⁿ sequences.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.

Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present

The passage blames crony capitalism — land, resources and licences traded for payoffs — for killing transparency and competition and for creating oligarchies that slow growth. The corollary is greater transparency in government, with financial inclusion widening opportunity beyond the favoured few.

  • ✗ (a) More welfare spending does nothing about cronyism, the problem the passage raises.
  • ✗ (b) 'Other means' of growth and licences for the poor sidestep the real issue — lost transparency and competition.
  • ✓ (c) Crony capitalism works 'by killing transparency and competition'; transparency and wider access to finance counter it.
  • ✗ (d) Manufacturing versus services is never discussed.

Remember · A corollary follows straight from the passage's diagnosis; choose the option that removes the cause the passage names.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—2

Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information services. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.

What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options

The passage says adaptation may fail if policies ignore other development concerns, and its food security example mixes climate measures with economic development measures. So climate adaptation must be planned together with other development options.

  • ✗ (a) Developing countries are not singled out, and difficulty is not the point.
  • ✗ (b) The passage never compares how complex food security and adaptation are.
  • ✗ (c) 'Every developmental activity' is too sweeping; only 'some of these measures' concern climate.
  • ✓ (d) Adaptation 'may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns'.

Remember · The opening sentence often states the thesis and the example supports it; pick the option that restates the thesis.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—3

Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.

Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water

Water and biodiversity are interdependent: vegetation and soil drive the movement of water, and water passing through fish, trees, bacteria and soil is cleansed. So biodiversity sustains nature's ability to cycle and renew water.

  • ✓ (a) 'Vegetation and soil drive the movement of water', and passing through ecosystems water 'is cleansed and made fit for consumption'.
  • ✗ (b) 'Cannot ... without' is too absolute; water passes through organisms only 'at least in part'.
  • ✗ (c) Generally true, but the passage is about water and biodiversity, not interaction among organisms.
  • ✗ (d) How life came into existence is outside the passage.

Remember · Reject absolute words ('cannot', 'never') when the passage hedges ('at least in part'); the right inference keeps the passage's own link.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—4

In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.

Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Need to promote financial inclusion

Banking has been restructured to serve mainly the middle and upper-middle classes, and the passage calls for an agenda that 'does not exclude the common man'. Bringing excluded people into banking and finance is financial inclusion.

  • ✗ (a) More automation and products is what has already happened — for the better-off.
  • ✗ (b) The passage is about banking and non-banking financial services, not the whole public finance system.
  • ✗ (c) Merging the two kinds of institutions is not suggested.
  • ✓ (d) A new agenda 'that does not exclude the common man' is financial inclusion.

Remember · Name the idea the author describes without naming it — 'does not exclude the common man' means financial inclusion.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—5

Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, only goes to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.

With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only
  2. 2.There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 only

The passage calls for a sustained, large-scale campaign for the right to sanitation, which points to building awareness of safe sanitation. But abolition of manual scavenging is the primary focus, not the only answer — the neglect of women in schemes and dry latrines are problems too — so statement 1 overstates it.

  • ✗ 1. 'Fully solved' and 'only' overstate it; the campaign should 'primarily' focus on abolition, alongside women's needs and pour-flush toilets.
  • ✓ 2. 'A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale'.

Remember · 'Primarily' is not 'only'. A statement that turns the main focus into the sole solution fails.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—6

To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system

Nature made man's wants greater than his individual powers; no one can meet his wants without society, and those wants 'impel the whole of them into society'. So it is man's natural wants that drove him into social life.

  • ✗ (a) Diversity in human society is not discussed.
  • ✗ (b) It is the individual, not society, that cannot meet its wants alone.
  • ✗ (c) It only echoes the premise 'nature created him for social life'; it misses why man became social, which is the passage's point.
  • ✓ (d) 'Those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society'.

Remember · An inference goes beyond a restated premise; pick the option that captures the cause-and-effect the passage builds.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—7

The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.

The statement refers to:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) the interrelationship of Politics and Economics

Why not the tempting option · UPSC's key is (b). Option (c) tempts because the law is made to depend on the distribution of economic power, but the dependence is hedged ('corresponds', 'in a general way') and the same sentence has the state controlling the society, so the statement describes a mutual relationship rather than the dominance of economics over politics. In the exam, read the whole sentence: the crux must cover both clauses, not only the one that sounds strongest.

The state's laws answer the demands it faces; those demands depend, in a general way, on how economic power is spread in a society that the state in turn controls. Each side shapes the other, so the statement is about the interrelationship of politics and economics.

  • ✗ (a) Nothing sets politics and economics against each other.
  • ✓ (b) Legal imperatives 'correspond to' demands that 'depend ... upon' the distribution of economic power in a society 'which the state controls': economics shapes the law, and the state controls the society — a two-way link.
  • ✗ (c) The dependence is only 'in a general way', the verb is 'corresponds', and the same sentence has the state controlling the society; a relationship is described, not the dominance of one side over the other.
  • ✗ (d) The statement makes law answer to economic power, not economic power to law.

Remember · When a text says X corresponds to Y 'in a general way' and keeps both sides active, choose 'relationship'; 'predominance' needs an outright claim that one side dominates.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—8

About 15 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide from fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO₂) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO₂ emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-use change account for another 17 per cent of greenhouse gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.

Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change

Agriculture gives about 15 per cent of greenhouse gas emissions, and forestry, land use and land-use change another 17 per cent, mostly from tropical deforestation and peatland. With nearly a third of emissions tied to how we use land, changing land use is essential to fighting climate change.

  • ✗ (a) 'Immediately replace ... all over the world' is extreme, and organic farming is never mentioned.
  • ✓ (b) About 15 per cent from agriculture plus another 17 per cent from 'forestry, land use, and land-use change'.
  • ✗ (c) Technology is not discussed at all.
  • ✗ (d) Tropical deforestation appears as a source of emissions; the tropics are not called the chief carbon sinks.

Remember · Add up the shares the passage gives; a large combined share points to the policy lever the author has in mind.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point ‘O’?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 13 km

North-east and north-west are at right angles, so the path turns through 90° at A. OB is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with arms 5 km and 12 km: √(5² + 12²) = 13 km.

  1. North-east and north-west are perpendicular, so angle OAB = 90°.
  2. OA = 5 km and AB = 12 km are the arms of the right angle.
  3. OB = √(5² + 12²) = √169 = 13 km.

Remember · Directions 90° apart (NE and NW, N and E) form a right angle — use Pythagoras; 5-12-13 is a triple worth knowing.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X₁ meters and breadth X₂ meters (X₁ and X₂ are variable). If X₁ + X₂ = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 400 sq m

When the length and breadth add up to 40 m, the area is greatest when the rectangle is a square of side 20 m. So the area can never exceed 20 × 20 = 400 sq m.

  1. For a fixed sum X₁ + X₂ = 40, the product X₁ × X₂ is largest when X₁ = X₂ = 20.
  2. Maximum area = 20 × 20 = 400 sq m.
  3. Check: 19 × 21 = 399 and 10 × 30 = 300, both below 400.

Remember · For a fixed sum, a product is largest when the parts are equal.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 1 year

The five members now total 80 + 15 = 95 years. With the baby, six people must total 6 × 16 = 96 years to keep the average at 16, so the baby is 1 year old.

  1. Three years ago: 5 members, total 80, average 16.
  2. Today the same 5 total 80 + 5 × 3 = 95.
  3. Today 6 members average 16: total 6 × 16 = 96.
  4. Baby's age = 96 − 95 = 1 year.

Remember · Age totals grow by (number of people × years passed); compare the required total with the grown total.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 12: 11

Equal totals mean 165% of the first person's basic pay equals 180% of the second's. So the basic pays are in the ratio 180 : 165 = 12 : 11.

  1. First: basic x, total 1.65x. Second: basic y, total 1.80y.
  2. 1.65x = 1.80y, so x : y = 180 : 165 = 12 : 11.
  3. Check: 12 × 1.65 = 19.8 and 11 × 1.80 = 19.8.

Remember · If a% of X equals b% of Y, then X : Y = b : a.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 9

Step 1 plus 4 more is step 5, the middle step. A middle step with 4 steps below it has 4 above it too, so the ladder has 9 steps.

  1. He stands on step 1; 4 more steps bring him to step 5.
  2. Step 5 is the middle, so there are 4 steps below it and 4 above it.
  3. Total = 4 + 1 + 4 = 9.

Remember · If the kth item is exactly the middle one, the total is 2k − 1.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh.

Further, we know that:

1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater

2. C wore a tie

3. Singh's garment was not white

4. Kumar does not wear a jacket

5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour

6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour

What is C's surname?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Ribeiro

Only A can have worn the white sweater (B is excluded and C wore the tie), so A is Kumar. 'Neither B nor Ribeiro' shows B is not Ribeiro, so B is Singh and C is Ribeiro.

  1. Clue 1 speaks of a white sweater worn by someone other than B and Ribeiro; it also tells us B is not Ribeiro.
  2. C wore the tie (clue 2), so the white sweater was A's.
  3. A is not Ribeiro (clue 1) and not Singh (clue 3), so A is Kumar — who indeed wears no jacket (clue 4).
  4. B wore the jacket. B is not Ribeiro, so B is Singh and C is Ribeiro.

Remember · 'Neither X nor Y' in a clue means X and Y are different people — a quiet but decisive fact in surname puzzles.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh.

Further, we know that:

1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater

2. C wore a tie

3. Singh's garment was not white

4. Kumar does not wear a jacket

5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour

6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour

What is the colour of the tie?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Blue

C, who wore the tie, is Ribeiro. White is A's sweater, and Ribeiro does not wear black, so the tie must be blue.

  1. Clue 1 speaks of a white sweater worn by someone other than B and Ribeiro; it also tells us B is not Ribeiro.
  2. C wore the tie (clue 2), so the white sweater was A's.
  3. A is not Ribeiro (clue 1) and not Singh (clue 3), so A is Kumar — who indeed wears no jacket (clue 4).
  4. B wore the jacket. B is not Ribeiro, so B is Singh and C is Ribeiro.
  5. Ribeiro does not wear black (clue 5), so C's tie is blue and B's jacket is black.
  6. Result: A Kumar — white sweater; B Singh — black jacket; C Ribeiro — blue tie.

Remember · 'Neither X nor Y' in a clue means X and Y are different people — a quiet but decisive fact in surname puzzles.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow.

When three friends A, B and C met, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are: jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are: blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh.

Further, we know that:

1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater

2. C wore a tie

3. Singh's garment was not white

4. Kumar does not wear a jacket

5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour

6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour

Who wore the sweater?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) A

Clue 1 points to a white sweater worn by neither B nor Ribeiro, and C wore the tie. So the sweater was A's.

  1. Clue 1 speaks of a white sweater worn by someone other than B and Ribeiro; it also tells us B is not Ribeiro.
  2. C wore the tie (clue 2), so the white sweater was A's.

Remember · 'Neither X nor Y' in a clue means X and Y are different people — a quiet but decisive fact in surname puzzles.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 25 m

The standing 12 m of trunk and the 5 m along the ground form a right triangle whose hypotenuse is the broken part: √(12² + 5²) = 13 m. The original height was 12 + 13 = 25 m.

  1. AC = 12 m (standing), AD = 5 m (on the ground), angle CAD = 90°.
  2. Broken part CD = √(12² + 5²) = √169 = 13 m.
  3. Original height = AC + CB = 12 + 13 = 25 m.

Remember · Broken-tree problems: original height = standing part + hypotenuse from the break to where the top touches the ground.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 5 km

The moves net to 3 km south (12 north, 15 south) and 4 km west (15 east, 19 west) of the start. The straight-line distance is √(3² + 4²) = 5 km.

  1. North–south: 12 km north, then 15 km south → 3 km south.
  2. East–west: 15 km east, then 19 km west → 4 km west.
  3. Distance = √(3² + 4²) = √25 = 5 km.

Remember · Net out north–south and east–west moves separately, then apply Pythagoras once.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 24

Each edge of the big cube is cut into 4, so every face is a 4 × 4 grid of small cubes. Only the inner 2 × 2 on each face has exactly one painted side: 6 × 4 = 24.

  1. The big cube becomes 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 small cubes.
  2. On each face, the cubes painted on that face alone form the inner (4 − 2) × (4 − 2) = 4.
  3. Six faces: 6 × 4 = 24.

Remember · Cube cut into n per edge: one face painted = 6(n − 2)², two faces = 12(n − 2), three faces = 8.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 10 days

Together they do 60% in 4 days, i.e. 15% a day. Shyam alone does the other 40% in 8 days, i.e. 5% a day. So Ram does 10% a day and would need 10 days alone.

  1. Together: 60% in 4 days = 15% a day.
  2. Shyam alone: 40% in 8 days = 5% a day.
  3. Ram = 15% − 5% = 10% a day, so 100 ÷ 10 = 10 days.

Remember · Turn work into per-day percentages; rates simply add when people work together.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) CARFNOIT

The code splits a word into two halves and writes each half backwards: SYS|TEM becomes SYS|MET and NEA|RER becomes AEN|RER. So FRAC|TION becomes CARF|NOIT.

  1. SYSTEM = SYS | TEM; reversing each half gives SYS | MET = SYSMET.
  2. NEARER = NEA | RER; reversing each half gives AEN | RER = AENRER. The rule fits both.
  3. FRACTION = FRAC | TION; reversing each half gives CARF | NOIT = CARFNOIT.

Remember · In coding items, test a positional rule — halves, pairs, reversal — on every example given before applying it.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) R + S is divisible by 10

Write R = 5a and S = 5b. The difference, product and sum of squares always keep the factor 5 (or 25), but R + S = 5(a + b) is a multiple of 10 only when a + b is even — 5 + 10 = 15 shows it can fail.

  1. Let R = 5a and S = 5b, where a and b are different integers.
  2. R − S = 5(a − b), R × S = 25ab and R² + S² = 25(a² + b²): always true.
  3. R + S = 5(a + b) is divisible by 10 only if a + b is even. Counter-example: R = 5, S = 10 gives 15.
  • ✗ (a) R − S = 5(a − b) is always a multiple of 5.
  • ✓ (b) Fails for R = 5, S = 10: the sum 15 is not divisible by 10.
  • ✗ (c) R × S = 25ab is always a multiple of 25.
  • ✗ (d) R² + S² = 25(a² + b²) is always a multiple of 5.

Remember · For 'not necessarily true', try one quick counter-example with the smallest numbers allowed.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 110

All numbers from 200 to 299 begin with 2 — 100 numbers — and 20 numbers from 102 to 292 end in 2. Ten of those (202 to 292) are counted twice, so the total is 100 + 20 − 10 = 110.

  1. Beginning with 2: 200 to 299 — 100 numbers.
  2. Ending in 2: 102, 112, …, 292 — 20 numbers.
  3. Both: 202, 212, …, 292 — 10 numbers.
  4. Total = 100 + 20 − 10 = 110.

Remember · 'Either … or' counting: add both groups, then subtract the overlap once.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy, a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.

What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources

As we prepare to feed two billion more people by 2050, the passage says a diet built on meat and dairy — rising across the developing world — takes a greater toll on the world's resources than a plant-based one. The critical message is that growing demand for animal foods burdens natural resources.

  • ✓ (a) A meat and dairy diet 'will take a greater toll on the world's resources'.
  • ✗ (b) The passage weighs the toll on resources, not health.
  • ✗ (c) Habits changing 'irrespective of the health concerns' is not discussed.
  • ✗ (d) The passage does say which diet is lighter on resources; it does not claim ignorance.

Remember · The critical message usually sits in the 'simply put' sentence; reject options that switch the frame, such as health instead of resources.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—2

All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.

Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members

Once herders began drinking milk as adults, lactose tolerance evolved among them, while groups not dependent on cattle stayed intolerant. The passage rests on the idea that a lasting change in a community's diet can bring about a genetic change in its members.

  • ✗ (a) Cattle domestication 10,000 years ago is stated in the passage — a given fact, not the assumption behind its argument.
  • ✓ (b) Lactose tolerance 'evolved' among herders after milk entered their diet; groups 'not dependant on cattle' remain intolerant.
  • ✗ (c) Lactase only breaks lactose into simple sugars; nothing says others cannot get simple sugars — 'only' is unsupported.
  • ✗ (d) 'Any dairy product' is too extreme; the passage speaks only of digesting milk sugar.

Remember · The best assumption links the passage's cause to its effect; options that repeat a stated fact or add 'only' or 'any' are weaker.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—3

“The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels.”

In the above statement, the author implies that:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult

The author says national income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are hard because part of the underdeveloped countries' output never passes through commercial channels. So the non-commercialised sector is what makes such comparisons difficult.

  • ✗ (a) 'The entire' output of industrialised countries is an overreach the statement does not make.
  • ✓ (b) Output 'produced without passing through the commercial channels' is the stated reason the difficulties are 'particularly serious'.
  • ✗ (c) A prescription ('should') the author never makes.
  • ✗ (d) The author notes where such output exists; he does not call it a sign of underdevelopment.

Remember · For 'the author implies', restate the author's own cause-and-effect; options adding 'should', 'entire' or a fresh judgement go beyond it.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—4

An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plants and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet – soil. In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in all plants and Earth's atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil

More carbon dioxide boosts plant growth, and flourishing roots stimulate soil microbes that speed up the decomposition of soil carbon and its release as carbon dioxide. So an increase in green cover could trigger the release of carbon locked in soil.

  • ✗ (a) The passage says CO₂ 'supports plant growth'; it says nothing about it being essential for microorganisms.
  • ✗ (b) 'Solely' is too strong; human-made CO₂ is one addition, not the only source.
  • ✗ (c) Reverses the chain: plant growth stimulates the microbes, not the other way round.
  • ✓ (d) As vegetation flourishes, 'their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon'.

Remember · Follow the chain the passage builds (CO₂ → plant growth → microbes → soil carbon released); the corollary is its end point.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Passage—5

Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as ‘a two-square meal’ is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions.

According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?

  1. 1.Setting up more agro-based industries
  2. 2.Improving the price affordability by the poor
  3. 3.Regulating the conditions of marketing
  4. 4.Providing food subsidy to one and all

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

The passage ends by naming 'food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor' as the global issues needing global solutions. Improving affordability for the poor and regulating marketing follow from this; agro-based industries and subsidies for everyone are never proposed.

  • ✗ 1. Agro-based industries are not mentioned.
  • ✓ 2. 'Especially price-affordability by the poor' — hunger comes from 'empty-pocket hungry mouths'.
  • ✓ 3. 'Food production, marketing and prices' are named as global issues needing global solutions.
  • ✗ 4. A subsidy 'to one and all' is not suggested; the concern is the poor who lack purchasing power.

Remember · For 'solutions according to the passage', use the issues it names in its conclusion; drop remedies it never proposes, especially sweeping ones.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food

The passage opens by saying that the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. Option (d) repeats this directly.

  • ✗ (a) Land and food processing are not mentioned.
  • ✗ (b) Hunger is discussed as a result of lack of purchasing power, not as agriculture's biggest challenge.
  • ✗ (c) Non-food items are never discussed.
  • ✓ (d) The passage's first sentence says exactly this.

Remember · When a question borrows the passage's own phrase ('biggest challenge'), find that phrase and read what follows it.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies?

  1. 1.Balancing demand and supply of food
  2. 2.Increasing imports of food
  3. 3.Increasing purchasing power of the poor
  4. 4.Changing the food consumption patterns and practices

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Supply-demand balance is called an 'inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation', and hunger persists where the poor lack purchasing power. So balancing supply and demand and raising the purchasing power of the poor both help; imports and changes in diet are not offered as remedies.

  • ✓ 1. Supply-demand balance is 'an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation'.
  • ✗ 2. Buying food abroad is mentioned only for open economies with 'adequate exchange surpluses', not as a remedy for poor economies.
  • ✓ 3. Food does not move to deficit countries 'if the latter lack in purchasing power'; hunger comes from 'empty-pocket hungry mouths'.
  • ✗ 4. The changing 'composition of demand' is a reason the issue has grown, not a remedy.

Remember · Separate what the passage gives as a cause of the problem from what it gives as a remedy; only remedies count here.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of:

  1. 1.overgrowth of the population worldwide
  2. 2.sharp decline in the area of food production
  3. 3.limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 3 only

The passage gives two reasons: the quantum and composition of demand have been changing, and countries' capabilities to keep an uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Only the second matches a statement; population overgrowth and a fall in food-growing area are never mentioned.

  • ✗ 1. The passage speaks of changes in 'the quantum and the composition of demand', not of population overgrowth.
  • ✗ 2. A decline in the area under food production is not mentioned.
  • ✓ 3. 'The capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain'.

Remember · Match each statement to the passage's exact reasons; a plausible real-world cause the passage does not state is out.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further,

  1. 1.2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other
  2. 2.1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
  3. 3.4 is not to appear at the last place
  4. 4.1 is not to appear at the first place

How many different numbers can be formed?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 6

Listing the arrangements by first digit (1 cannot lead) and striking out any with 2 and 3 side by side, with 1 directly before 3, or with 4 at the end leaves 2143, 2431, 3142, 3412, 3421 and 4312 — six numbers.

  1. 1 cannot come first, so the number starts with 2, 3 or 4.
  2. Starting with 2: 2143 and 2431 work (2134 and 2413 contain 13; 2314 and 2341 contain 23).
  3. Starting with 3: 3142, 3412 and 3421 work (3124 ends in 4; 3214 and 3241 contain 32).
  4. Starting with 4: only 4312 works (4123 and 4231 contain 23; 4132 and 4213 contain 13; 4321 contains 32).
  5. Total = 2 + 3 + 1 = 6.

Remember · With only 24 arrangements, list them systematically by first digit and strike out rule-breakers rather than trusting a formula with overlapping conditions.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m × 4 m × 6 m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1/3

The cylinder holds 22/7 × 2² × 7 = 88 m³, and the full underground tank holds 5.5 × 4 × 6 = 132 m³. After the cylinder is filled, 44 m³ remain — one-third of the underground tank.

  1. Overhead tank: πr²h = 22/7 × 2 × 2 × 7 = 88 m³.
  2. Underground tank (taken as full at the start): 5.5 × 4 × 6 = 132 m³.
  3. Left: 132 − 88 = 44 m³, and 44/132 = 1/3.

Remember · When 7 appears in a radius or height, take π = 22/7; the numbers are usually set to cancel neatly.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 12

The class has 20 boys and 40 girls. Of the 16 students ahead of Kamal, 9 are girls, so 7 are boys. Leaving out Kamal himself, 20 − 7 − 1 = 12 boys rank below him.

  1. Girls = 2 × boys and the total is 60, so boys = 20 and girls = 40.
  2. Kamal is 17th: 16 students are ahead; 9 are girls, so 7 are boys.
  3. Boys after Kamal = 20 − 7 − 1 = 12.

Remember · In ranking items, split the people ahead by group, then subtract them and the person himself from his group's total.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8.00 a.m. and before 9.30. a.m.?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 7

Walking in opposite directions they together cover 5 rounds an hour, so they meet every 12 minutes. In the 90 minutes up to 9:30 they cross at 12, 24, …, 84 minutes — 7 times.

  1. In opposite directions their speeds add: 2 + 3 = 5 rounds an hour.
  2. They meet each time they together complete one round: every 60 ÷ 5 = 12 minutes.
  3. 8:00 to 9:30 is 90 minutes: meetings at 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72 and 84 minutes.
  4. That is 7 crossings; the next would be at 96 minutes, after 9:30.

Remember · Opposite directions on a circular track: crossings = combined rounds covered, counting only whole rounds completed within the time.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Z

Scaling each part-job up to the whole work: W needs 120 days, X 40, Y 100 and Z 39. Z finishes first.

  1. W: 25% in 30 days → 30 ÷ 1/4 = 120 days.
  2. X: 1/4 in 10 days → 40 days.
  3. Y: 40% in 40 days → 40 ÷ 2/5 = 100 days.
  4. Z: 1/3 in 13 days → 39 days — the fastest.

Remember · Convert every rate to days for the whole job (days ÷ fraction done) before comparing.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Rs. 12,000

A rise of Rs. 1,20,000 a year is Rs. 10,000 a month. Shared across 5 people it lifts the monthly average by Rs. 2,000, from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 12,000.

  1. Family's monthly income = 5 × Rs. 10,000 = Rs. 50,000.
  2. Rs. 1,20,000 a year = Rs. 10,000 a month.
  3. New average = (50,000 + 10,000) ÷ 5 = Rs. 12,000.

Remember · Put all figures in the same time unit first; the average then rises by the increase divided by the number of people.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 150 m

The apples lie 5, 8, 11, 14, 17 and 20 m from the bucket, and he must run to each and back. The total is 2 × (5 + 8 + 11 + 14 + 17 + 20) = 2 × 75 = 150 m.

  1. Distances from the bucket: 5, 8, 11, 14, 17 and 20 m.
  2. Each apple needs a run there and back: 2 × distance.
  3. Total = 2 × (5 + 8 + 11 + 14 + 17 + 20) = 2 × 75 = 150 m.

Remember · One-at-a-time fetching doubles every distance; add the distances as a series (number of terms × average).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 0.16

Taking every point of the target as equally likely, the probability is the red area over the whole area: (0.20 ÷ 0.50)² = 0.16. The widths of the other bands do not matter.

  1. Target radius = 1 m ÷ 2 = 0.50 m; red radius = 0.20 m.
  2. Probability = red area ÷ target area = (0.20/0.50)² = 0.4² = 0.16.

Remember · For circles, the ratio of areas is the square of the ratio of radii.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Rs. 630

After a 10% discount the toy sells for Rs. 693. That price already includes a 10% gain, so the cost price is 693 ÷ 1.1 = Rs. 630.

  1. Selling price = 90% of Rs. 770 = Rs. 693.
  2. Cost price × 1.1 = 693, so cost price = Rs. 630.
  3. Check: 630 × 1.1 = 693.

Remember · Chain the percentages: marked price × (1 − discount) = cost price × (1 + gain).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·