भारत सरकार के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित सूचना पर विचार कीजिए : I. प्रवर्तन निदेशालय — भगोड़ा आर्थिक अपराधी अधिनियम, 2018 का प्रवर्तन — आंतरिक सुरक्षा प्रभाग–I, गृह मंत्रालय II. राजस्व आसूचना निदेशालय — सीमा-शुल्क अधिनियम, 1962 के उपबंधों को प्रवर्तित करना — राजस्व विभाग, वित्त मंत्रालय III. प्रणाली एवं आँकड़ा (सिस्टम्स ऐंड डेटा) प्रबंधन महानिदेशालय — बेहतर नीति और कर-वंचकों को पकड़ने में कर अधिकारियों की सहायता के लिए वृहत् आँकड़ा (डेटा) विश्लेषण का उपयोग करना — राजस्व विभाग, वित्त मंत्रालय उपर्युक्त में से कितनी पंक्तियों में सूचना सही सुमेलित है?

(d) किसी में नहीं

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. भारत में, ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में कुक्कुट-पालन और ऊन उत्पादन जैसे संवर्गी कृषि कार्यकलाप से प्राप्त आय को किसी भी कर से छूट प्राप्त है। कथन II. भारत में, आयकर अधिनियम, 1961 के उपबंधों के अधीन, ग्रामीण कृषि भूमि को पूँजीगत परिसंपत्ति नहीं माना जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं किन्तु कथन II, कथन I की व्याख्या नहीं करता है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. जहाँ तक किसी कम्पनी में निवेश से प्राप्त प्रतिफलों का संबंध है, आमतौर पर यह माना जाता है कि स्टॉक-धारकों की तुलना में बॉन्ड-धारकों को अपेक्षाकृत कम जोखिम रहता है। कथन II. बॉन्ड-धारक किसी कम्पनी के ऋणदाता होते हैं, जबकि स्टॉक-धारक उसके स्वामी होते हैं। कथन III. पुनर्भुगतान के प्रयोजन के लिए, किसी कम्पनी द्वारा बॉन्ड-धारकों को स्टॉक-धारकों की अपेक्षा प्राथमिकता दी जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं और कथन I, कथन II की व्याख्या करता है

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था ग्रीनहाउस गैसों के उत्सर्जन को कम करती है। कथन II. चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था आगत के रूप में कच्चे माल के प्रयोग को कम करती है। कथन III. चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था उत्पादन प्रक्रिया में अपव्यय को कम करती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. वायुमंडल में विद्यमान धूल कणों की मात्रा, विषुवतीय और ध्रुवीय क्षेत्रों की अपेक्षा, उपोष्ण और शीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में अधिक है। कथन II. उपोष्ण और शीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में कम शुष्क पवन चलती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं किन्तु कथन II, कथन I की व्याख्या नहीं करता है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. जनवरी में, उत्तरी गोलार्ध में, समताप रेखाएँ भूखण्डों से गुजरती हुई विषुवत् वृत्त की ओर मुड़ती हैं, जबकि महासागरों से गुजरती हुई ध्रुवों की ओर मुड़ती हैं। कथन II. जनवरी में, महासागरों के ऊपर की हवा, उत्तरी गोलार्ध के भूखण्डों के ऊपर की हवा से अधिक गर्म होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं किन्तु कथन II, कथन I की व्याख्या नहीं करता है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. शैलों पर जल के प्रभाव के संदर्भ में, चॉक एक अत्यंत पारगम्य शैल के रूप में ज्ञात है, जबकि मृत्तिका एक नितांत अपारगम्य या न्यूनतम पारगम्य शैल के रूप में ज्ञात है। कथन II. चॉक सरंध्र होता है, अतः जल अवशोषित कर सकता है। कथन III. मृत्तिका बिल्कुल ही सरंध्र नहीं है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. अध्ययनों से सूचित होता है कि सीमेंट उद्योग से उत्सर्जित कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड का वैश्विक कार्बन उत्सर्जन में उसके 5% से अधिक का योगदान है। कथन II. सीमेंट का निर्माण करते समय चूना-पत्थर में सिलिका-युक्त मृत्तिका मिलाई जाती है। कथन III. सीमेंट निर्माण हेतु क्लिंकर उत्पादन के दौरान चूना-पत्थर, चूना में बदल जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. 28वें संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु परिवर्तन सम्मेलन (COP28) में, भारत ने ‘जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य विषयक घोषणा’ पर हस्ताक्षर नहीं किया। कथन II. COP28 जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य विषयक घोषणा एक बाध्यकर घोषणा है; और इस पर हस्ताक्षर कर देने पर स्वास्थ्य सेक्टर का विकार्बनन करना अधिदेशात्मक हो जाता है। कथन III. यदि भारत के स्वास्थ्य सेक्टर का विकार्बनन किया जाए, तो इसकी स्वास्थ्य-देखभाल प्रणाली के लचीलेपन पर संकट आ सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. वैज्ञानिक अध्ययन यह सुझाते हैं कि पृथ्वी के घूर्णन और अक्ष में परिवर्तन हो रहा है। कथन II. सौर संस्फुरों (फ्लेयर्स) और उससे संबद्ध किरीटी द्रव्यमान निष्कासनों ने पृथ्वी के सबसे बाहरी वायुमंडल पर विशाल ऊर्जा-राशि की बौछार कर दी है। कथन III. जैसे-जैसे पृथ्वी का ध्रुवीय हिम पिघलता है, जल की प्रवृत्ति विषुवत्-वृत्त की ओर जाने की होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते के अनुच्छेद 6 की चर्चा, सतत विकास और जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक वैश्विक चर्चाओं में बारम्बार आती है। कथन II. जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते का अनुच्छेद 6, कार्बन बाज़ारों के सिद्धांतों को निर्दिष्ट करता है। कथन III. जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते के अनुच्छेद 6 का आशय देशों को अपने जलवायु लक्ष्य प्राप्त करने हेतु उनके बीच गैर-बाज़ारी रणनीतियों का संवर्धन करना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

‘प्रत्यक्ष वात प्रग्रहण (डाइरेक्ट एयर कैप्चर)’, जो नई उभरती प्रौद्योगिकी है, के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं? I. इसे कार्बन प्रच्छादन की एक विधि के रूप में प्रयोग में ला सकते हैं। II. यह प्लास्टिक उत्पादन हेतु और खाद्य प्रसंस्करण में एक बहुमूल्य उपागम हो सकता है। III. विमानन में, यह संश्लिष्ट न्यून-कार्बन ईंधन जनन हेतु हाइड्रोजन में मिलाने के लिए कार्बन का स्रोत हो सकता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

(d) उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कोई भी सही नहीं है

पृथ्वी ग्रह के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : I. वर्षा वन, महासागरों द्वारा उत्पादित ऑक्सीजन की तुलना में अधिक ऑक्सीजन उत्पादित करते हैं। II. समुद्री पादप-प्लवक और प्रकाश-संश्लेषी जीवाणु विश्व में ऑक्सीजन का लगभग 50% उत्पादित करते हैं। III. वायुमंडलीय हवा में विद्यमान ऑक्सीजन की तुलना में, सुचारू रूप से ऑक्सीकृत पृष्ठ-जल में अनेक गुना अधिक ऑक्सीजन होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

(d) उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कोई भी सही नहीं है

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : कथन I. सक्रियित कार्बन बहिःस्रावी धाराओं में से प्रदूषकों को हटाने और विभिन्न उद्योगों से आने वाले संदूषकों के उपचारण हेतु एक अच्छा और आकर्षक साधन है। कथन II. सक्रियित कार्बन का एक वृहत् पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल होता है और उसमें भारी धातुओं को अधिशोषित करने की दमदार शक्यता है। कथन III. सक्रियित कार्बन, उच्च कार्बन अंश वाले वातावरणीय अपशिष्टों में से आसानी से संश्लेषित किया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(d) न तो कथन II और न ही कथन III सही है

प्रश्न यूपीएससी के हिंदी प्रश्नपत्र से · व्याख्या अभी अंग्रेज़ी में

English हिंदी

Prelims GS I

UPSC CSE 2025 · Paper I · Series A

Prelims GS Paper I 2025

All 100 questions in UPSC's order, with the official answer key.

Take it as a timed test UPSC's paper ↗ UPSC's answer key ↗ PDF with explanations

What this paper asked, by subject▾

Prelims 2025 · Q1

Capital markets, insurance & financial instruments Medium

निवेश के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए :

I.बॉन्ड
II.प्रतिरक्षा निधियाँ (हेज फंड्स)
III.स्टॉक
IV.जोखिम पूँजी

उपर्युक्त में से कितनों को वैकल्पिक निवेश निधि माना जाता है?

Read this question in English

With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds

II. Hedge Funds

III. Stocks

IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

SEBI defines an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) as a privately pooled fund that collects money from sophisticated investors and invests it under a set policy. Hedge funds and venture capital funds are such pooled funds and are registered as AIFs; bonds and stocks are securities that a fund may buy, not funds themselves.

✗ I A bond is a debt security issued by a government or company. It can be held by an AIF, but a bond is not a pooled fund.
✓ II SEBI registers hedge funds (along with PIPE funds) as Category III AIFs, which may use complex trading strategies and leverage.
✗ III Stocks are shares of ownership in a company, an asset class traded on exchanges, not a privately pooled investment vehicle.
✓ IV Venture capital funds, including angel funds, form a sub-category of Category I AIFs under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.

Remember · AIF = privately pooled fund regulated by SEBI (2012 rules). Category I: venture capital, angel, SME, social venture, infrastructure funds; Category III: hedge funds, PIPE funds.

Sources

SEBI, FAQs on the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 ↗ “Alternative Investment Fund or AIF means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign … Various types of funds such as hedge funds, PIPE Funds, etc. are registered as Category III AIFs. … shall include venture capital funds, SME Funds, social venture funds, infrastructure funds and such other Alternative Investment Funds as may be specified”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q2

Money, banking & monetary policy X-Ray · Core #8 Medium

निम्नलिखित में कौन-कौन से, भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक की आय के स्रोत हैं?

I.सरकारी बॉन्डों का क्रय और विक्रय
II.विदेशी मुद्रा का क्रय और विक्रय
III.पेंशन निधि प्रबंधन
IV.निजी कंपनियों को ऋण देना
V.करेंसी नोटों का मुद्रण और वितरण

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

III. Pension fund management

IV. Lending to private companies

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only · (b) II, III and IV · (c) I, III, IV and V · (d) I, II and V

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I और II

The RBI earns mainly on the assets it holds and trades: interest and trading gains on rupee government securities, and interest and exchange gains on its foreign currency assets. Printing notes is shown in its accounts as an expense, and the RBI neither manages pension funds nor lends to private companies.

✓ I The RBI holds and trades government securities (for example in open market operations); interest on them and profit on their sale or redemption are part of its income.
✓ II Exchange gains from foreign exchange transactions and interest on foreign securities are a large part of the RBI's earnings from foreign sources.
✗ III Pension funds are managed by pension fund managers under the PFRDA; no such item appears among the RBI's income heads.
✗ IV The RBI is a banker to governments and banks. It lends to banks and governments, not to private companies, so this is not an income source.
✗ V The RBI's income statement lists 'Printing of Notes' under expenditure (about ₹5,101 crore in 2023-24), so it is a cost, not income.

Remember · RBI income = interest and gains on rupee and foreign securities plus forex dealings. Printing currency notes is an expenditure for the RBI.

Sources

RBI Annual Report 2023-24, Chapter XII: The Reserve Bank's Accounts for 2023-24 ↗ “The components of Reserve Bank’s income are ‘Interest’ and ‘Other Income’ including (i) Discount (ii) Exchange (iii) Commission (iv) Amortisation of premium/ discount on Foreign and Rupee Securities (v) Profit/ Loss on sale and redemption of Foreign and Rupee Securities … Certain items of income such as interest on LAF repo, Repo in foreign security and exchange gain/ loss from foreign exchange transactions are reported on net basis. … The Reserve Bank incurs expenditure in the course of performing its statutory functions by way of agency charges/commission, printing of notes, expenditure on remittance of currency”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q3

Constitutional, statutory & regulatory bodies X-Ray · Core #9 Hard

भारत सरकार के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित सूचना पर विचार कीजिए :

	संगठन	इस संगठन के कुछ कार्य	यह संगठन किसके अधीन कार्य करता है
I.	प्रवर्तन निदेशालय	भगोड़ा आर्थिक अपराधी अधिनियम, 2018 का प्रवर्तन	आंतरिक सुरक्षा प्रभाग–I, गृह मंत्रालय
II.	राजस्व आसूचना निदेशालय	सीमा-शुल्क अधिनियम, 1962 के उपबंधों को प्रवर्तित करना	राजस्व विभाग, वित्त मंत्रालय
III.	प्रणाली एवं आँकड़ा (सिस्टम्स ऐंड डेटा) प्रबंधन महानिदेशालय	बेहतर नीति और कर-वंचकों को पकड़ने में कर अधिकारियों की सहायता के लिए वृहत् आँकड़ा (डेटा) विश्लेषण का उपयोग करना	राजस्व विभाग, वित्त मंत्रालय

उपर्युक्त में से कितनी पंक्तियों में सूचना सही सुमेलित है?

Read this question in English

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs

II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल एक

Only the DRI row is fully right. The Enforcement Directorate does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Home Ministry. Big data analytics to help tax officers is the job of CBIC's Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), not the DG of Systems and Data Management.

✗ I The ED enforces PMLA, FEMA and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) lists it as its attached office; it is not under the Home Ministry.
✓ II The DRI is the apex anti-smuggling agency of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, enforcing the Customs Act, 1962 under the Department of Revenue.
✗ III The data-mining and analytics role described belongs to DGARM, which CBIC created as its apex body for data analytics and risk management in July 2017.

Remember · ED, DRI and CBIC's directorates all sit under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Tax data analytics and risk profiling: DGARM (CBIC, 2017).

Sources

Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: About the Department ↗ “Enforcement, viz., investigation, and adjudication of cases arising out of breaches under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (1999); Directorate General of Revenue Intelligence and Directorate of Enforcement; All matters relating to Economic Intelligence”
Directorate of Enforcement: About Us ↗ “today leading the enforcement of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA)”
PIB (Ministry of Finance), 67th Foundation Day of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, 4 December 2024 ↗ “the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) — the apex anti-smuggling agency of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC) — in New Delhi, today.”
PIB (Ministry of Finance), Detection of GST Evasion ↗ “The DGARM functions as an apex body of CBIC for data analytics and risk management. The DGARM utilizes internal and external data sources for data mining and analysis”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q4

Capital markets, insurance & financial instruments X-Ray · Core #6 Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक भारत में सभी सूचीबद्ध कंपनियों को व्यावसायिक उत्तरदायित्व और स्थिरता रिपोर्ट [बिजनेस रिस्पॉन्सिबिलिटी ऐंड सस्टेनेबिलिटी रिपोर्ट (BRSR)] प्रस्तुत करने का अधिदेश करता है।
II.भारत में, व्यावसायिक उत्तरदायित्व और स्थिरता रिपोर्ट (BRSR) प्रस्तुत करने वाली कोई कंपनी, इस रिपोर्ट में उनका प्रकटन करती है जो मुख्यतः गैर-वित्तीय स्वरूप के हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल II

The BRSR is a SEBI requirement, not an RBI one, and it applies to the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation, not all listed companies. Its disclosures cover environmental, social and governance (ESG) performance, so they are largely non-financial.

✗ I SEBI's May 2021 circular made BRSR filing mandatory from 2022-23 for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation; the RBI has no role, and not every listed company is covered.
✓ II The BRSR reports performance on ESG parameters under the nine principles of the National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct, asking firms to look beyond financials.

Remember · BRSR: SEBI, circular of 10 May 2021; mandatory from FY 2022-23 for top 1,000 listed companies; ESG (non-financial) disclosures; replaced the Business Responsibility Report.

Sources

SEBI Circular SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD-2/P/CIR/2021/562: Business responsibility and sustainability reporting by listed entities, 10 May 2021 ↗ “with effect from the financial year 2022-2023, filing of BRSR shall be mandatory for the top 1000 listed companies (by market capitalization) and shall replace the existing BRR. … The BRSR shall also enable companies to engage more meaningfully with their stakeholders, by encouraging them to look beyond financials and towards social and environmental impacts.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q5

Budget, taxation & public finance X-Ray · Core #29 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: भारत में, ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में कुक्कुट-पालन और ऊन उत्पादन जैसे संवर्गी कृषि कार्यकलाप से प्राप्त आय को किसी भी कर से छूट प्राप्त है।
कथन II: भारत में, आयकर अधिनियम, 1961 के उपबंधों के अधीन, ग्रामीण कृषि भूमि को पूँजीगत परिसंपत्ति नहीं माना जाता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement-II. In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I · (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I · (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct · (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कथन I सही नहीं है किन्तु कथन II सही है

Only 'agricultural income', which must come from land used for agriculture, is exempt. Poultry farming or wool rearing does not involve cultivating land, so its income is taxable like business income. Separately, section 2(14) excludes rural agricultural land from 'capital asset', so gains on selling it escape capital gains tax.

✗ Statement-I Section 2(1A) ties agricultural income to land in India used for agricultural purposes. Audit has treated even milk sales as dairy income, not income from agricultural land, so allied activities are taxable.
✓ Statement-II Section 2(14) excludes agricultural land from 'capital asset', except land within or near municipalities and cantonments of specified population (urban agricultural land).
• Since then Since 1 April 2026 the Income-tax Act, 2025 has replaced the 1961 Act; PIB says the rewrite does not alter the underlying tax policy (PIB, 1 April 2026).

Remember · Exempt agricultural income must arise from land used for agriculture; poultry, dairy, wool are taxable. Rural agricultural land is not a capital asset, so no capital gains tax on it.

Sources

CAG Report No. 9 of 2019 (Direct Taxes), Chapter V: Assessments relating to Agricultural income ↗ “As per section 2(1A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (the Act) ‘agricultural income’ means (a) Any rent or revenue derived from land which is situated in India and is used for agricultural purposes … As dry grapes (kismis) is an agro-based industrial product and milk is a dairy product, the income therefrom could not be considered as income derived from the agricultural land.”
Memorandum explaining the provisions in the Finance Bill, 2013 (Direct Taxes) ↗ “define the term “capital asset” as property of any kind held by an assessee, whether or not connected with his business or profession. Certain categories of properties including agricultural land have been excluded from this definition.”
PIB (Ministry of Finance), Income-tax Act, 2025 comes into force from today (1st April, 2026) ↗ “represents a comprehensive effort to simplify and modernise the country’s income-tax law, replacing the six-decade-old Income-tax Act, 1961.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q6

Minerals, energy & industry X-Ray · Core #18 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारत, खनिज सुरक्षा भागीदारी में एक सदस्य के रूप में सम्मिलित हो गया है।
II.भारत अपने द्वारा चिह्नित सभी 30 अति आवश्यक खनिजों में साधन-संपन्न है।
III.संसद ने 2023 में खान और खनिज (विकास और विनियमन) अधिनियम, 1957 में संशोधन कर कतिपय अति आवश्यक खनिजों के लिए खनन पट्टा और संयुक्त (कम्पोजिट) लाइसेंस नीलामी से देने हेतु केन्द्रीय सरकार को अनन्य रूप से सशक्त किया है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल I और III

India became the 14th member of the US-led Mineral Security Partnership in June 2023, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 let the Centre alone auction mining leases and composite licences for listed critical minerals. But India is far from self-sufficient: it depends mostly on imports for minerals such as lithium, cobalt and nickel.

✓ I The Ministry of Mines told Parliament that India joined the Mineral Security Partnership as its 14th member in June 2023.
✗ II India identified 30 critical minerals in June 2023 precisely because supply is a risk; for several of them, including lithium, cobalt and nickel, it relies mostly on imports.
✓ III The 2023 amendment empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for critical minerals in Part D of the First Schedule; the States still grant the lease and keep the revenue.

Remember · Critical minerals: 30 identified (June 2023); MSP member since June 2023; MMDR Amendment 2023 lets the Centre auction them while States keep the revenue.

Sources

PIB (Ministry of Mines), Strengthening of Mineral Supply Chains, 7 August 2023 ↗ “India has become 14th member of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023.”
PIB (Ministry of Mines), Union Minister Pralhad Joshi unveils List of Critical Minerals for India ↗ “Disclosing that 30 critical minerals have been identified in the report released today, the Minister stated”
PIB (Ministry of Mines), Measures Initiated to Attain Self-reliance in Critical Minerals ↗ “Critical and deep-seated minerals such as Cobalt, Lithium, Nickel, Gold, Silver, and Copper are difficult to explore and mine as compared to surfacial or bulk minerals. The country is mostly dependent on imports of these minerals.”
PIB (Ministry of Mines), Parliament Passes Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023 ↗ “Another major amendment passed by the Parliament is to empower the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite licence for certain critical minerals”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q7

Capital markets, insurance & financial instruments X-Ray · Core #6 Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: जहाँ तक किसी कम्पनी में निवेश से प्राप्त प्रतिफलों का संबंध है, आमतौर पर यह माना जाता है कि स्टॉक-धारकों की तुलना में बॉन्ड-धारकों को अपेक्षाकृत कम जोखिम रहता है।
कथन II: बॉन्ड-धारक किसी कम्पनी के ऋणदाता होते हैं, जबकि स्टॉक-धारक उसके स्वामी होते हैं।
कथन III: पुनर्भुगतान के प्रयोजन के लिए, किसी कम्पनी द्वारा बॉन्ड-धारकों को स्टॉक-धारकों की अपेक्षा प्राथमिकता दी जाती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement-II. Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement-III. For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I · (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II · (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I · (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन II और कथन III दोनों सही हैं तथा वे दोनों कथन I की व्याख्या करते हैं

A bondholder has lent money to the company and is owed a fixed return, while a stockholder owns a share of the company and takes whatever is left. Because lenders must be repaid first, bondholders face less risk than owners; both Statements II and III therefore explain Statement I.

✓ Statement-I Bond returns are fixed in advance (coupon and redemption amount), while stock returns depend on profits and share prices, so bonds are generally the lower-risk claim on the same company.
✓ Statement-II SEBI explains that an equity investor becomes an owner of the company, while a debt investor becomes a lender to it.
✓ Statement-III As a lender, the bondholder has a higher claim on the company's assets than a shareholder if the company goes bankrupt, so bondholders are repaid first.

Remember · Bondholders = lenders (fixed return, paid before shareholders); stockholders = owners (voting rights, residual claim, higher risk).

Sources

SEBI, FAQs on the Corporate Bond market ↗ “When an investor invests money through equity, he becomes an owner in the company issuing such equity shares. … In case of debt, the investor becomes a lender to the company. As a lender, he has higher claim to the assets of the issuer as compared to a shareholder in the event of the company filing for bankruptcy.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q8

Capital markets, insurance & financial instruments X-Ray · Core #6 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.वैश्विक स्तर पर किए गए सभी इक्विटी विकल्प संविदाओं के कारोबार में भारत का अत्यधिक वृहद् अंश होता है, इस प्रकार भारत सहसा अतिवृद्धि को दर्शाता है।
II.हाल के विगत समय में भारत का स्टॉक बाज़ार तेजी से बढ़ा है, यहाँ तक कि उसने एक समय इसमें हांगकांग को भी पीछे छोड़ दिया।
III.छोटे निवेशकों को या तो विकल्प व्यापार जोखिमों की चेतावनी देने या इस विषय में अपंजीकृत वित्तीय सलाहकारों पर कार्रवाई करने के लिए कोई नियामक निकाय नहीं है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I और II

Indian exchanges lead the world in the number of derivative contracts traded, driven by a boom in index options, and India's equity market has grown fast enough to rank among the world's five largest. Statement III is false: SEBI is the statutory regulator, it registers and regulates investment advisers, and it has itself published studies on retail losses in futures and options.

✓ I SEBI, citing World Federation of Exchanges data, notes that an Indian exchange ranks first globally by number of contracts traded, far ahead of the next exchange.
✓ II The Economic Survey 2023-24 records that the Indian market rose to fifth in the world by market capitalisation in FY24, while Hong Kong was among the few major markets that did not post better returns that year. Business Standard, reporting Bloomberg data, said in January 2024 that India's market capitalisation had overtaken Hong Kong's for the first time.
✗ III The SEBI Act sets up SEBI to protect the interests of investors in securities and to regulate the securities market, including registering and regulating investment advisers. Its September 2024 study found that over 9 in 10 (93%) individual F&O traders incurred losses between FY22 and FY24.

Remember · India leads the world in exchange-traded options volume; SEBI's 2024 study: 93% of individual F&O traders lost money (FY22–FY24). SEBI is the regulator and registers investment advisers.

Sources

SEBI, Comparative study of growth in Equity Derivatives Segment vis-à-vis Cash Market after recent measures (July 2025) ↗ “basis data of World Federation of Exchanges, for the period March 2025, Indian exchange holds top position among the global peers in terms of number of contracts traded”
Economic Survey 2023-24, Chapter 2: Monetary Management and Financial Intermediation ↗ “Significant interest from domestic and global investors in the Indian stock market as an attractive investment destination and sustained IPO activity placed the Indian market fifth in the world by market capitalisation in FY24. … All the major markets, except China and Hong Kong, delivered better returns during the period compared to the previous year.”
SEBI Press Release PR No. 22/2024, Updated SEBI Study Reveals 93% of Individual Traders Incurred Losses in Equity F&O ↗ “A new study conducted by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revealed that over 9 out of 10 individual traders in the equity futures and options (F&O) segment continue to incur significant losses.”
Business Standard (Bloomberg), 23 Jan 2024: In a first, India overtakes Hong Kong as world's fourth-largest stock market ↗ · reference work “market capitalization has overtaken Hong Kong’s for the first time as the South Asian nation’s growth prospects and policy reforms make it an investor darling”
The Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (SEBI): long title ↗ “An Act to provide for the establishment of a Board to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate, the securities market … registering and regulating the working of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers to an issue, trustees of trust deeds, registrars to an issue, merchant bankers, underwriters, portfolio managers, investment advisers”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q9

Pollution & waste X-Ray · Core #13 Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था ग्रीनहाउस गैसों के उत्सर्जन को कम करती है।
कथन II: चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था आगत के रूप में कच्चे माल के प्रयोग को कम करती है।
कथन III: चक्रीय अर्थव्यवस्था उत्पादन प्रक्रिया में अपव्यय को कम करती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement-II. Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement-III. Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I · (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I · (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I · (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन II और कथन III दोनों सही हैं तथा वे दोनों कथन I की व्याख्या करते हैं

A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling instead of the 'take–make–dispose' model. Using fewer fresh raw materials cuts the energy spent extracting and processing them, and cutting waste cuts the emissions from producing and disposing of it, so both II and III explain the fall in greenhouse gas emissions.

✓ Statement-I The European Parliament lists a reduction in total annual greenhouse gas emissions among the benefits of a circular economy.
✓ Statement-II Reusing and recycling products slows the use of natural resources, so fewer virgin raw materials are needed; this lowers emissions from mining and processing.
✓ Statement-III Better design and efficient production reduce waste and the energy and resources consumed, which also lowers emissions.

Remember · Circular economy = reduce, reuse, repair, recycle. Fewer raw materials and less waste mean less energy use and lower greenhouse gas emissions.

Sources

European Parliament, Circular economy: definition, importance and benefits (2023) ↗ “Parliament wants Europeans to switch to a circular economy by using raw materials more efficiently and reducing waste. … Another benefit from the circular economy is a reduction in total annual greenhouse gas emissions. Creating more efficient and sustainable products from the start would help to reduce energy and resource consumption”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q10

Budget, taxation & public finance Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.पूँजीगत प्राप्तियाँ देयता का सृजन करती हैं या सरकार की परिसंपत्तियों में कमी लाती हैं।
II.उधार-ग्रहण और विनिवेश पूँजीगत प्राप्तियाँ हैं।
III.ऋणों पर प्राप्त ब्याज सरकार की देयता का सृजन करता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I और II

A capital receipt either creates a liability (borrowing must be repaid) or reduces the government's assets (selling PSU shares). Interest the government earns on loans it has given is non-tax revenue: it creates no claim on the government, so III is wrong.

✓ I NCERT defines capital receipts as all receipts that create a liability or reduce the government's financial assets.
✓ II Fresh loans create a liability to repay, and disinvestment (sale of PSU shares) reduces financial assets, so both are capital receipts.
✗ III Interest receipts on loans given by the government are non-tax revenue, a revenue receipt that does not lead to any claim on the government.

Remember · Capital receipt = creates liability or reduces assets (borrowings, recovery of loans, disinvestment). Revenue receipt = no claim on government (taxes, interest, dividends, fees).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “All those receipts of the government which create liability or reduce financial assets are termed as capital receipts.”
NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “Capital Receipts: The government also receives money by way of loans or from the sale of its assets. Loans will have to be returned to the agencies from which they have been borrowed. Thus they create liability.”
NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of interest receipts on account of loans by the central government, dividends and profits on investments made by the government”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q11

Social & religious reform movements Easy

राजा राममोहन राय के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.उनमें प्राच्य विश्व के पारम्परिक दार्शनिक सिद्धांतों के प्रति अत्यंत अनुराग और समादर था।
II.उनकी कामना थी कि उनके देशवासी तर्कसंगत और वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण तथा सभी पुरुषों और महिलाओं की मानवीय गरिमा और सामाजिक समता के सिद्धांत को मानें।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I और II दोनों

Rammohun Roy combined respect for India's philosophical heritage with Western rationalism. He grounded the Brahmo Samaj in the Upanishads and argued against sati from the ancient texts, while pressing for Western education, reason and equality for women.

✓ I He valued the Vedantic tradition: the Brahmo Samaj believed in the Upanishads, and he argued that sati had no sanction in ancient texts rather than rejecting those texts.
✓ II He wanted Western education spread in India and sought greater freedom and equality for women, appealing to reason and humanitarian ideas.

Remember · Rammohun Roy (1772–1833): Brahmo Sabha 1828; anti-sati campaign (sati banned 1829); blended Western rationality with respect for Indian (Vedantic) tradition.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Indian Society, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Indian Society, Chapter 5 “Rammohun Roy's ideas represented a curious mixture of Western rationality and an assertion of Indian traditionality.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q12

The Gandhian era, 1917–1947 Medium

असहयोग कार्यक्रम के बारे में, निम्नलिखित विषयों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.न्यायालयों और विदेशी वस्त्र का बहिष्कार
II.अहिंसा का कठोर अनुपालन
III.उपाधियों और सम्मानों का, उनका सार्वजनिक उपयोग न करते हुए, प्रतिधारण
IV.विवादों के निपटारे के लिए पंचायतों की स्थापना

उपर्युक्त में से कितने असहयोग कार्यक्रम के अवयव हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

II. Observance of strict non-violence

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल तीन

The 1920 programme asked Indians to boycott courts, schools, councils and foreign goods, to stay strictly non-violent, and to settle disputes through their own panchayats instead of British courts. Titles and honours were to be surrendered, not kept, so only item III is wrong.

✓ I Boycott of courts and foreign goods was central; lawyers gave up practice and foreign cloth was burnt in public bonfires.
✓ II Gandhi promised swaraj within a year only if people kept strictly to non-violence, and he called off the movement after the violence at Chauri Chaura in February 1922.
✗ III The first stage was the surrender of titles the government had awarded, not their retention.
✓ IV Gandhi's non-cooperation appeal asked people to boycott the law courts and to settle their quarrels before panchayats; the Congress resolution likewise called for settlement of disputes by private arbitration.

Remember · Non-Cooperation (1920–22): surrender titles; boycott schools, courts, councils, foreign cloth; panchayats, national schools, khadi; strict non-violence; withdrawn after Chauri Chaura.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 India and the Contemporary World – II, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 8 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 10 · India and the Contemporary World – II, Chapter 2 “It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods.”
NCERT Class 8 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 2 “encouraged non-violent resistance through the boycott of foreign goods, schools, and courts — thus began the Non-Cooperation Movement, with Gandhi promising Swaraj within a year if people adhered strictly to nonviolence.”
The Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi, Vol. XIX (Nov 1920 - Apr 1921), Publications Division, Government of India (Internet Archive scan): Gandhi's speech on the programme (boycott of courts, panchayats) ↗ · reference work “boycott courts of law, schools and colleges. He could ask them to settle their quarrels before panchayats. … boycott by the litigants of law courts and settlement of their disputes by private arbitration”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q13

Early medieval kingdoms (c. 700–1200) Medium

सिंचाई में काम आने वाला ‘अरघट्टा’ नामक उपकरण क्या था?

Read this question in English

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley · (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes · (c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks · (d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) एक बड़ा चक्का, जिसकी अराओं (स्पोक्स) के बाहरी छोरों पर मिट्टी के पात्र बँधे हों

The answer is the pot-wheel of Indian irrigation: a large wheel carrying a ring of pots that dip into a well, fill, rise and empty into a channel as the wheel turns. NCERT reproduces Babur's description of it, a wheel with pitchers fastened to ropes and wooden strips, turned by a bullock through geared wheels, and calls the same device the Persian wheel (Rehat).

✓ (b) Babur describes a wheel-well device with pitchers fastened between two circles of rope, turned by a bullock through toothed wheels, with a trough where the pitchers empty. NCERT's figure calls it a Persian wheel. UPSC's key treats this option as correct; we could not confirm the option's name from an official source, so we do not explain that detail.
✗ (a) Babur also describes a different device: a large bucket on a rope passed over a roller at the well-edge and tied to a bullock. NCERT lists the Charas as a separate well-irrigation device, distinct from the Rehat (Persian wheel). Neither is a wheel of pots.
✗ (d) A bucket on a rope is the other kind of lift Babur describes; it is not a wheel carrying a ring of pots.

Remember · Wheel with a ring of pots lifting well water = the Persian wheel (Rehat); Babur describes one turned by a bullock through gears. A bucket-and-rope lift (charas type) is a different device.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part II, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part II, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part II, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Understanding Society, Ch 1 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part II, Chapter 4 “They make two circles of rope long enough to suit the depths of the well, fix strips of wood between them, and on these fasten pitchers.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part II, Chapter 4 “The last wheel the bullock turns; its teeth catch in the teeth of the second (wheel), and thus the wheel with the pitchers is turned.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part II, Chapter 4 “tie a rope to a large bucket, put the rope over a roller, and tie its other end to the bullock.”
NCERT Class 11 · Understanding Society, Chapter 1 “But if a Charas is replaced by a Rehat (persian wheel) for irrigation which calls for a heavier capital investment, one needs only one pair of bullocks and one person for its operation.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q14

Sangam age & early South India Medium

प्राचीन भारत में इनमें से किस शासक ने ‘मत्तविलास’, ‘विचित्रचित्त’ और ‘गुणभरा’ उपाधियाँ धारण की थीं?

Read this question in English

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

(a) Mahendravarman I · (b) Simhavishnu · (c) Narasimhavarman I · (d) Simhavarman

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) महेन्द्रवर्मन प्रथम

The Mandagapattu inscription mentions the Pallava king Mahendravarman I, who ruled in the seventh century, with numerous titles such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded), one of the three titles the question names. He was also a fine poet who left a satirical Sanskrit play.

✓ (a) Mahendravarman I, who ruled in the seventh century and built temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram, is the king the Mandagapattu inscription credits with titles such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded) and Chitrakarapuli (tiger among artists).
✗ (c) Narasimhavarman I, the son of Mahendravarman I, was also known as Mamalla ('wrestler' or 'warrior'); NCERT notes that he defeated Pulakeshin II and went on to capture Badami. That is not the set of titles in the question.
✗ (b) Simhavishnu is not the Pallava king whom NCERT links with the Mandagapattu inscription's titles such as Vichitrachitta; that is Mahendravarman I.

Remember · Mahendravarman I (Pallava, 7th century): titles such as Vichitrachitta and Chitrakarapuli at Mandagapattu; poet of a satirical Sanskrit play; rock-cut temples at Mandagapattu. His son Narasimhavarman I = Mamalla.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 5 “The inscription at Mandagapattu mentions Mahendravarman I with numerous titles such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded),”
NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 3 “Mahendravarman I himself was a fine poet who left a satirical Sanskrit play.”
NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 3 “The latter was also known as 'Mamalla', which means 'wrestler' or 'warrior'; indeed, it was he who defeated Pulakeshin II and went on to capture Badami.”
NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 5 “Chitrakarapuli (tiger among artists), Chaityakari (temple builder), which show his interest in art activities.”
NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 5 “Mahendravarma I who ruled in the seventh century was responsible for building temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q15

Post-Mauryan kingdoms & the Guptas Easy

चीनी तीर्थयात्री फाह्यान ने इनमें से किसके शासनकाल में भारत की यात्रा की थी?

Read this question in English

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta · (b) Chandragupta II · (c) Kumaragupta I · (d) Skandagupta

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) चन्द्रगुप्त द्वितीय

Faxian's travels ran from about 399 to 414 CE, and he was in India in the early fifth century. Chandragupta II ruled the Gupta empire from about 375 to 415 CE, so the visit falls squarely in his reign.

✓ (b) Chandragupta II (c. 375–415 CE) was on the throne for the whole of Faxian's journey, recorded in his Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms (399–414 CE).
✗ (a) Samudragupta ruled about 335–375 CE, a generation before Faxian set out from China.
✗ (c) Kumaragupta I succeeded Chandragupta II only around 415 CE, after Faxian had already gone home.

Remember · Faxian (399–414 CE) came under Chandragupta II (c. 375–415 CE); Xuanzang came two centuries later under Harshavardhana (606–647 CE).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Ch 7 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Chapter 7 “Chinese traveller Faxian (pronounced as Fa-Shi-Anne) visited India in the early 5th century CE.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part I, Chapter 2 “c. 320 CE Beginning of Gupta rule c. 335-375 CE Samudragupta c. 375-415 CE Chandragupta II; Vakatakas in the Deccan”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q16

Early medieval kingdoms (c. 700–1200) Easy

इनमें से किसने शक्तिशाली समुद्रवर्ती राज्य श्रीविजय के विरुद्ध, जिसका शासन मलय प्रायद्वीप, सुमात्रा, जावा और निकटवर्ती द्वीपों पर था, एक सफल सैन्य अभियान का नेतृत्व किया था?

Read this question in English

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) · (b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya) · (c) Rajendra I (Chola) · (d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) राजेन्द्र प्रथम (चोल)

Only the Cholas had a navy able to strike across the Bay of Bengal. Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja I, sent a naval expedition in the 1020s that defeated Srivijaya's forces and took its capital, a punitive raid rather than a lasting occupation.

✓ (c) Rajendra I's fleet defeated the Shrivijaya forces and captured their capital; he also took the title Gangaikondachola after campaigns reaching Odisha and Bengal.
✗ (a) Amoghavarsha I was a ninth-century Rashtrakuta king of the Deccan, remembered as Nripatunga and a patron of scholars, not for any overseas war.
✗ (d) Vishnuvardhana freed the Hoysalas of Karnataka from Chalukya overlordship in the twelfth century and challenged the Cholas on land; he led no naval campaign.

Remember · Rajendra Chola I (c. 1014–1044): naval raid on Srivijaya (Malay Peninsula–Sumatra), title Gangaikondachola, new capital Gangaikondacholapuram.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 4 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 4 “Rajendra sent his navy, which defeated the Shrivijaya forces and captured their capital. However, he did not try to occupy the defeated empire; it was a punitive expedition,”
NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 4 “Under King Vishnuvardhana, they broke away from Chalukya overlordship, challenged the Cholas, and gradually extended their sway over most of present-day Karnataka.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q17

Vedic age & the Mahajanapadas Medium

प्राचीन भारत (600–322 ईसा पूर्व) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	प्रादेशिक क्षेत्र	इस क्षेत्र में बहने वाली नदी
I.	अश्मक	गोदावरी
II.	कम्बोज	विपास
III.	अवन्ती	महानदी
IV.	कोसल	सरयू

उपर्युक्त में से कितने युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

I. Asmaka — Godavari

II. Kamboja — Vipas

III. Avanti — Mahanadi

IV. Kosala — Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

Of the sixteen mahajanapadas, Asmaka lay on the Godavari in the Deccan and Kosala around Ayodhya on the Sarayu, so those two pairs are right. Kamboja lay in the north-west beside Gandhara, not on the Vipas (the Beas of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and Avanti, whose capital was Ujjayini in western Madhya Pradesh, is nowhere near the Mahanadi.

✓ I Asmaka (Ashmaka) lay in central India close to the Godavari River, as NCERT says.
✗ II Kamboja lay in the north-west, beside Gandhara on NCERT's map of the early states. The Vipas is the Sanskrit name of the Beas, a river of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, so the pair is wrong.
✗ III Avanti's capital was Ujjayini (NCERT map), the present Ujjain in western Madhya Pradesh on the Malwa Plateau; the Mahanadi rises in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha.
✓ IV Kosala was the ancient kingdom whose capital was Ayodhya, which stands on the banks of the Saryu (Sarayu).

Remember · Mahajanapada rivers: Asmaka–Godavari (Deccan); Kosala–Sarayu (Ayodhya); Avanti–Ujjayini (Malwa); Kamboja–north-west, beside Gandhara; Vipas = Beas.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 India: Physical Environment, Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Chapter 4 “extending from Gandhara in the northwest to Anga in the east and to Ashmaka in central India, close to the Godavari River (see map).”
District Ayodhya, Government of Uttar Pradesh: About District ↗ “Ayodhya is a city situated on the banks of holy river Saryu. … Ayodhya used to be the capital of the ancient Kosala Kingdom.”
NCERT Class 11 · India: Physical Environment, Chapter 3 “The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part I, Chapter 2 “KAMBOJA GANDHARA Pushkalavati Taxila SHURASENA Mathura MATSYA Indraprastha Ahichchhatra KURU PANCHALA Kaushambi CHEDI AVANTI Ujjayini ASHMAKA”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Beas River (Sanskrit name Vipasha) ↗ · reference work “Also known as: Bias River, Hyphasis River, Vipasha River … river in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab states, northwestern India”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Ujjain ↗ · reference work “city, western Madhya Pradesh state, central India . It is located on the Malwa Plateau on the east side of the Sipra (Shipra) River”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q18

Music, dance & theatre Medium

प्रथम गन्धर्व महाविद्यालय, जो एक संगीत प्रशिक्षण विद्यालय था, विष्णु दिगंबर पलुस्कर द्वारा 1901 में कहाँ स्थापित किया गया था?

Read this question in English

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

(a) Delhi · (b) Gwalior · (c) Ujjain · (d) Lahore

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) लाहौर

Paluskar opened the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901 and went on to open many schools across India; after his death in 1931 his disciples formed the Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal. NCERT names him, with V.N. Bhatkhande, as a reformer who set up music institutions.

✓ (d) The Mandal's own account says Paluskar established the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901, the seed of the later organisation.
✗ (b) The first school was in Lahore, not Gwalior; Paluskar opened further schools across India only afterwards.
✗ (a) The first school was in Lahore, not Delhi; Paluskar opened further schools across India only afterwards.

Remember · V.D. Paluskar: Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, Lahore, 1901; his disciples formed the Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal in 1931. V.N. Bhatkhande: the other great reformer of Hindustani music (NCERT).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Knowledge Traditions and Practices of India, Part I, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Knowledge Traditions and Practices of India, Part I, Chapter 3 “Pt. V.N. Bhatkhande and Pt. V.D. Paluskar worked hard for the upliftment of music and musicians by organising music conferences, establishing music institutions and writing books.”
Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal: About ABGMVM ↗ · reference work “In 1901, he sowed the seeds of the ABGMVM by establishing the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore. … In 1931, following his demise, his dedicated disciples came together to form the Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal (ABGMVM).”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q19

The Mauryan empire Medium

जैसा कि अशोक के अभिलेखों से ज्ञात होता है, ‘प्रादेशिक’, ‘राजुक’ और ‘युक्त’ किस स्तर पर महत्त्वपूर्ण अधिकारी थे?

Read this question in English

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

(a) village-level administration · (b) district-level administration · (c) provincial administration · (d) level of the central administration

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) ज़िला-स्तरीय प्रशासन

In Rock Edict III Ashoka orders his officers, the Rajjukas and Pradeshikas in Sircar's translation (the Yuktas being the 'officers' of the Girnar text, as his note explains), to go on circuit every five years, which marks them as the officers running the districts. NCERT calls the pradeshikas district governors, and Sircar's glossary says the Rajjukas were probably governors of districts.

✓ (b) All three were district-level officers: NCERT calls the pradeshikas district governors with judicial and administrative functions, Sircar's glossary says the Rajjukas were probably governors of districts, and the Yuktas are a class of officers who toured with them.
✗ (c) NCERT describes provinces as the level above divisions and districts; the officers named in the edict work at the district level beneath the provinces.
✗ (a) Villages were led by a headman called the gramika (NCERT); the three officers worked above the village, at the district level.

Remember · Rock Edict III: Rajjukas, Pradeshikas (and Yuktas, 'officers') to tour every five years for dhamma; district-level officers; villages under the gramika.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 9 Understanding Society: India and Beyond, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 7 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 9 · Understanding Society: India and Beyond, Chapter 5 “District governors or pradeshikas were responsible for judicial and administrative functions.”
NCERT Class 7 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 1), Chapter 5 “And for this purpose, I shall send out on tour every five years, an officer who is not severe or harsh;”
D.C. Sircar, Inscriptions of Asoka (Publications Division, Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India, 1957; Internet Archive scan): Rock Edict III (Girnar text) ↗ · reference work “shall set out every five years on a circuit for inspection throughout their charges, as much for their other duties as for the special purpose of preaching Dharma … The Rajjukas were probably the governors of districts. … The word Yukta, taken here in the sense of ‘an officer’, is generally believed to be the designation of a class of officers.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q20

The Gandhian era, 1917–1947 Medium

असहयोग आंदोलन के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.काँग्रेस ने घोषणा की कि सभी वैध और शांतिपूर्ण तरीकों से ‘स्वराज’ प्राप्त करना उसका उद्देश्य है।
II.इसे चरणों में कार्यान्वित किया जाना था, जिसमें सविनय अवज्ञा और करों का भुगतान न करना अगले चरण के लिए थे, केवल तब, जब ‘स्वराज’ एक वर्ष में प्राप्त न होता और सरकार दमन पर उतर आती।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I और II दोनों

At the Nagpur session of December 1920, which adopted the Non-Cooperation programme, the Congress adopted a new objective, the attainment of swaraj by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means. Gandhi planned the movement in stages, keeping civil disobedience and refusal to pay taxes in reserve for a later stage if the government turned to repression.

✓ I The Nagpur Congress (December 1920) adopted as its object the attainment of swaraj by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means.
✓ II The first stage was surrender of titles and boycotts; a full civil disobedience campaign, including non-payment of taxes, was to follow only if the government used repression, and Gandhi promised swaraj within a year.

Remember · Non-Cooperation: Calcutta special session (Sept 1920) → Nagpur (Dec 1920) adopts it and new creed 'swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means'; staged plan; withdrawn after Chauri Chaura (Feb 1922).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 India and the Contemporary World – II, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 10 India and the Contemporary World – II, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part III, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 10 · India and the Contemporary World – II, Chapter 2 “Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded,”
NCERT Class 10 · India and the Contemporary World – II, Chapter 2 “Then, in case the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part III, Chapter 3 “If non- cooperation was effectively carried out, said Gandhiji, India would win swaraj within a year.”
The Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi, Vol. XIX (Nov 1920 - Apr 1921), Publications Division, Government of India (Internet Archive scan): Article 1 of the Congress constitution adopted at Nagpur ↗ · reference work “The object of the Indian National Congress is the attainment of Swarajya by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q21

International organisations & groupings X-Ray · Core #30 Medium

निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.ऑस्ट्रिया
II.बुल्गारिया
III.क्रोएशिया
IV.सर्बिया
V.स्वीडेन
VI.उत्तरी मेसिडोनिया

उपर्युक्त में से कितने उत्तरी अटलांटिक संधि संगठन के सदस्य देश हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following countries:

I. Austria

II. Bulgaria

III. Croatia

IV. Serbia

V. Sweden

VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

(a) Only three · (b) Only four · (c) Only five · (d) All the six

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल चार

Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), North Macedonia (2020) and Sweden (2024) are NATO members. Austria and Serbia are only NATO partners, not Allies, and both stress neutrality.

✗ I Austria is not on NATO's list of 32 Allies. The Austrian Foreign Ministry calls Austria a NATO partner, a member of the Partnership for Peace since 1995, and stresses its commitment to neutrality.
✓ II Bulgaria joined NATO in 2004, as NATO's member list shows.
✓ III Croatia became a member in 2009, as NATO's member list shows.
✗ IV Serbia is a Partnership for Peace partner since 2006 but does not seek membership; NATO says it respects Serbia's military neutrality.
✓ V Sweden joined NATO in 2024, as NATO's member list shows; NATO then had 32 members.
✓ VI North Macedonia joined NATO in 2020, as NATO's member list shows.

Remember · NATO has 32 Allies: Finland 2023 and Sweden 2024 the newest; North Macedonia 2020; Croatia 2009; Bulgaria 2004. Austria and Serbia are partners (Partnership for Peace), not members.

Sources

NATO: Member countries ↗ “Albania 2009 Belgium 1949 Bulgaria 2004 Canada 1949 Croatia 2009 Czechia 1999 Denmark 1949 Estonia 2004 Finland 2023 France 1949 Germany 1955 … North Macedonia 2020 Norway 1949 Poland 1999 Portugal 1949 Romania 2004 Slovakia 2004 Slovenia 2004 Spain 1982 Sweden 2024”
NATO: Relations with Serbia ↗ “NATO fully respects Serbia’s policy of military neutrality. Cooperation and dialogue have developed steadily since 2006, when the country joined the Partnership for Peace (PfP) programme”
Austrian Federal Ministry for European and International Affairs (foreign government site): Security policy, Austria as a NATO partner ↗ · reference work “The Republic of Austria has been a member of the NATO Partnership for Peace ( PfP ) since 1995 … chief among them a clear commitment to Austrian neutrality.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q22

World: places, rivers & mapping X-Ray · Core #4 Easy

निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.बोलीविया
II.ब्राज़ील
III.कोलंबिया
IV.इक्वाडोर
V.पराग्वे
VI.वेनेजुएला

एन्डीज़ पर्वत-शृंखला उपर्युक्त देशों में कितनों में से होकर गुजरती है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia

II. Brazil

III. Colombia

IV. Ecuador

V. Paraguay

VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two · (b) Only three · (c) Only four · (d) Only five

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल चार

The Andes run along South America's western side through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. From the list, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the chain; Brazil and Paraguay lie wholly to the east.

✓ I Bolivia is one of the countries with large portions of the Tropical Andes.
✗ II Brazil is not one of the Andean countries; it lies east of the chain, in the Amazon basin and the Brazilian Highlands.
✓ III Colombia includes large portions of the Tropical Andes; the northern Andes split into several ranges (cordilleras) there.
✓ IV Ecuador includes large portions of the Tropical Andes; its Andean cordilleras carry volcanoes such as Chimborazo and Cotopaxi.
✗ V Paraguay is a landlocked lowland country of the Paraná–Paraguay basin and the Gran Chaco, with no Andean ranges.
✓ VI The Andes hotspot extends from western Venezuela, where the northernmost Andes (the Venezuelan or Caribbean cordillera) lie.

Remember · Andes countries (7), north to south: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, Argentina. Not Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay or the Guianas.

Sources

Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF; World Bank, GEF, EU, AFD, Government of Japan and others), Tropical Andes Biodiversity Hotspot ↗ · reference work “the Tropical Andes Biodiversity Hotspot extends from western Venezuela to northern Chile and Argentina, and includes large portions of Colombia, Ecuador, Peru and Bolivia.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q23

World: places, rivers & mapping X-Ray · Core #54 Medium

निम्नलिखित जलाशयों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.तांगान्यीका झील
II.टोनले सैप झील
III.पाटोस लैगून

भूमध्यरेखा इनमें कितनों में से होकर गुजरती है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika

II. Lake Tonlé Sap

III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कोई भी नहीं

UPSC's key is none. Tonlé Sap, in Cambodia, lies at about 12.8°N (UNESCO). Lake Tanganyika lies along the borders of Tanzania, the DRC, Burundi and Zambia, and Burundi, one of its shore countries, lies south of the equator. Patos Lagoon is in Rio Grande do Sul, in the extreme south-east of Brazil.

✗ I Lake Tanganyika occupies the southern end of the Western Rift Valley, with ports at Bujumbura in Burundi, Kalemie in the DRC, Mpulungu in Zambia, and Ujiji and Kigoma in Tanzania. UPSC's official key treats the equator as not passing through it; we could not confirm its latitude from an official source, so we do not explain it here.
✗ II UNESCO gives Tonlé Sap's latitude as 12.8135 (north), in Cambodia.
✗ III Patos Lagoon lies in Rio Grande do Sul, in the extreme south-east of Brazil; it is the largest lagoon in Brazil. UPSC's official key treats the equator as not passing through it.

Remember · Tonlé Sap ≈ 12.8°N (Cambodia). Lake Tanganyika: rift lake on the Tanzania, DRC, Burundi and Zambia borders. Patos Lagoon: Rio Grande do Sul, extreme south-east Brazil.

Sources

UNESCO Man and the Biosphere: Tonle Sap Biosphere Reserve ↗ “Country Cambodia Total population 1380615 Area Surface 1,483,339.00 ha Total terresterial area 1,483,339.00 ha Location Latitiude: 12.8135 - Longitude: 104.052”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Lake Tanganyika ↗ · reference work “forms the boundary between Tanzania and the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and part of the boundary between Burundi and the DRC as well as part of the boundary between Tanzania and Zambia . … Important ports situated along Lake Tanganyika are Bujumbura in Burundi, Kalemie in the DRC, Mpulungu in Zambia, and Ujiji and Kigoma in Tanzania.”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Patos Lagoon ↗ · reference work “Patos Lagoon , shallow lagoon in Rio Grande do Sul estado (state), extreme southeastern Brazil . It is the largest lagoon in Brazil and the second largest in South America .”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Burundi (location) ↗ · reference work “Burundi , country in east-central Africa , south of the Equator .”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q24

Agriculture & crops Medium

वर्ष 2022–23 के दौरान हल्दी के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारत विश्व में हल्दी का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक और निर्यातक है।
II.भारत में हल्दी की 30 से अधिक किस्में उगाई जाती हैं।
III.भारत में महाराष्ट्र, तेलंगाना, कर्नाटक और तमिलनाडु प्रमुख हल्दी-उत्पादक राज्य हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

UPSC's key treats all three statements as correct. The Spices Board and ICAR-IISR describe India as a leading producer and exporter, many varieties and local cultivars are grown (23 improved varieties in the manual's Table 1 alone, plus local cultivars such as Duggirala, Erode local, Salem, Alleppey and Lakdong), and Telangana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are among the top producing States, with Karnataka listed among the other important producers.

✓ I The Spices Board manual calls India a leading producer and exporter of turmeric. UPSC's official key treats the statement as correct; we could not confirm the rest of the statement from an official source, so we do not explain it here.
✓ II The manual's Table 1 lists 23 improved varieties (from ICAR-IISR Kozhikode, TNAU, OUAT, KAU and others), and it names local cultivars such as Duggirala, Tekkurpet, Amalapuram, Erode local, Salem, Alleppey, Moovattupuzha and Lakdong, so more than 30 are grown.
✓ III The manual says Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh together give 63.4% of India's turmeric, and lists Odisha, Karnataka, West Bengal, Gujarat, Meghalaya and Assam as other important producers.

Remember · Turmeric: India is a leading producer and exporter; more than 30 varieties and cultivars; Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh lead, with Karnataka and Odisha among other important producers.

Sources

Spices Board / ICAR-Indian Institute of Spices Research: Turmeric – Good Agricultural Practices (2019) ↗ · reference work “India is a leading producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. The states of Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh together contributes 63.4% of India’s turmeric production, … A number of cultivars are available in the country and are known mostly by the name of locality where they are cultivated. … Some of the popular cultivars are Duggirala, Tekkur- pet, Sugandham, Amalapuram, Erode local, Salem, Alleppey, Moovattupuzha and Lakdong. … other important turmeric producers are Orissa, Karnataka, West Bengal, Gujarat, Meghalaya, Assam.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q25

Earth, landforms & geomorphology Easy

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से महाद्वीपीय विस्थापन की घटना के साक्ष्य हैं?

I.ब्राज़ील तट की प्राचीन शैलों की मेखला, पश्चिमी अफ्रीका तट की प्राचीन शैलों की मेखला से मिलती है।
II.घाना के स्वर्ण-निक्षेप ब्राज़ील पठार से व्युत्पन्न होते हैं, जब ये दोनों महाद्वीप अगल-बगल अवस्थित होते हैं।
III.यह ज्ञात है कि भारत के गोंडवाना अवसाद तंत्र के प्रतिरूप दक्षिणी गोलार्ध के छः विभिन्न भूखंडों में मिलते हैं।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and III only · (b) I and II only · (c) I, II and III · (d) II and III only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I, II और III

All three are classic evidences Wegener's supporters used to show the southern continents were once joined: matching ancient rock belts on either side of the South Atlantic, placer gold in Ghana whose source veins lie in Brazil, and the same glacial Gondwana sediments in India and five other southern landmasses.

✓ I Rocks about 2,000 million years old on the Brazilian coast match those of western Africa, and the oldest marine deposits along both coasts are only Jurassic, so the ocean between them is young.
✓ II Ghana has rich placer gold but no source rock; the gold-bearing veins are in Brazil, so the deposits must have come from the Brazil plateau when the continents touched.
✓ III The Gondwana sediments of India, with thick glacial tillite at the base, are matched in Africa, the Falkland Islands, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia.

Remember · Continental drift evidence: jig-saw fit, matching rocks across the Atlantic (Brazil–West Africa), Ghana's placer gold from Brazil, Gondwana tillite in six southern landmasses, fossils like Mesosaurus and Glossopteris.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 4 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 4 “The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa.”
NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 4 “The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.”
NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 4 “The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q26

Climate & atmosphere X-Ray · Core #31 Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: वायुमंडल में विद्यमान धूल कणों की मात्रा, विषुवतीय और ध्रुवीय क्षेत्रों की अपेक्षा, उपोष्ण और शीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में अधिक है।
कथन II: उपोष्ण और शीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में कम शुष्क पवन चलती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement-II. Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) कथन I सही है किन्तु कथन II सही नहीं है

Dust is indeed more concentrated over subtropical and temperate belts, but the reason is that these regions have more dry winds, not fewer. Dry winds lift fine soil from arid and semi-arid land, while rain in equatorial regions and ice cover near the poles keep dust down, so Statement II gets the cause backwards.

✓ Statement-I The atmosphere holds more dust over subtropical and temperate regions than over equatorial and polar regions; the dust mostly stays in the lower layers.
✗ Statement-II These regions have plenty of dry winds, which is exactly why they carry more dust; saying they have 'less dry winds' is false.

Remember · Dust concentration is highest in subtropical and temperate regions because of dry winds; dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei for cloud formation.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 7 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 7 “The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q27

Climate & atmosphere Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: जनवरी में, उत्तरी गोलार्ध में, समताप रेखाएँ भूखण्डों से गुजरती हुई विषुवत् वृत्त की ओर मुड़ती हैं, जबकि महासागरों से गुजरती हुई ध्रुवों की ओर मुड़ती हैं।
कथन II: जनवरी में, महासागरों के ऊपर की हवा, उत्तरी गोलार्ध के भूखण्डों के ऊपर की हवा से अधिक गर्म होती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement-II. In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन II, कथन I की व्याख्या करता है

In the northern winter, land loses heat fast while the oceans, helped by warm currents such as the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, stay relatively warm. A given temperature is therefore found farther north over the sea and farther south over land, so the isotherms bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over continents; the warmer ocean air is the reason.

✓ Statement-I January isotherms swing north over the North Atlantic and south over Europe and especially the Siberian plain.
✓ Statement-II Oceans cool slowly and warm currents add heat, so in January the air over them is warmer than over the cold northern landmasses; this contrast is what bends the isotherms, so II explains I.

Remember · January (NH winter): isotherms bend poleward over oceans, equatorward over land; July reverses it. Deviation is sharper in the Northern Hemisphere because it has more land.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 8 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 8 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 8 “In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean.”
NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 8 “The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q28

Earth, landforms & geomorphology Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: शैलों पर जल के प्रभाव के संदर्भ में, चॉक एक अत्यंत पारगम्य शैल के रूप में ज्ञात है, जबकि मृत्तिका एक नितांत अपारगम्य या न्यूनतम पारगम्य शैल के रूप में ज्ञात है।
कथन II: चॉक सरंध्र होता है, अतः जल अवशोषित कर सकता है।
कथन III: मृत्तिका बिल्कुल ही सरंध्र नहीं है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II. Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III. Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) कथन II और कथन III में से केवल एक सही है तथा वह कथन I की व्याख्या करता है

Porosity is how much empty space a rock holds; permeability is how easily water passes through it. Chalk is a soft limestone, and limestone is porous and gives up its pore water freely, which explains Statement I. Clay is actually highly porous (USGS puts it at about 50%), but its pores are so tiny that water barely moves, so Statement III ('not at all porous') is wrong.

✓ Statement I Chalk is a variety of limestone (Britannica), and USGS shows limestone yielding most of its pore water freely, while groundwater moves very slowly through relatively impermeable materials such as clay and shale.
✓ Statement II Chalk, as a limestone, is porous: USGS lists limestone at 20% porosity with 18% specific yield, so it takes up and releases water readily. That is why chalk is permeable, so II explains I.
✗ Statement III Clay is not free of pores: USGS lists its porosity at 50%, but only 2% of that drains freely because the pores are tiny. Britannica notes that permeability falls as the average pore size becomes smaller.

Remember · Porosity = pore space; permeability = ease of water flow. Chalk (limestone): porous and permeable. Clay: highly porous but nearly impermeable because its pores are minute.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

U.S. Geological Survey, Water Science School: Aquifers and Groundwater (copy of the USGS page) ↗ “Groundwater moves very slowly through relatively impermeable materials such as clay and shale.”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Permeability (geology) ↗ · reference work “The porosity of a soil horizon increases as its texture becomes finer, whereas the permeability decreases as the average pore size becomes smaller.”
NCERT Class 11 · Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter 5 “If the rocks are permeable and soluble and water is available only then karst topography develops.”
U.S. Geological Survey, Water-Supply Paper 2220: Basic Ground-Water Hydrology (Heath, 1983): porosity, specific yield and specific retention ↗ “Clay ----------------------- 50 2 48 Sand ---------------------- 25 22 3 Gravel --------------------- 20 19 1 Limestone ------------------ 20 18 2”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Chalk ↗ · reference work “chalk , soft, fine-grained, easily pulverized, white-to-grayish variety of limestone .”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q29

Climate & atmosphere X-Ray · Core #31 Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.वायुमंडल के बिना भूपृष्ठ पर सर्वत्र तापमान हिमांक के बहुत नीचे होता है।
II.वायुमंडल के द्वारा अवशोषित और पाशित (ट्रैप्ड) ऊष्मा हमारे ग्रह के औसत तापमान को बनाए रखती है।
III.वायुमंडल की कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड जैसी गैसें विकिरण को अवशोषित और पाशित करने के लिए विशेष रूप से उत्तम हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.

III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only · (b) I and II only · (c) I, II and III · (d) II and III only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I, II और III

All three describe the natural greenhouse effect. The Earth's surface re-radiates sunlight as infrared heat; gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour absorb much of it, which keeps the global average near 15°C. Remove that blanket and the surface would be about 33°C colder, below freezing.

✓ I Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect the average surface temperature would fall by roughly 33°C, from about 15°C to around −18°C, too cold for life.
✓ II The heat that the atmosphere absorbs and traps is what holds the planet's average temperature at a life-supporting level.
✓ III Carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour absorb the infrared heat re-radiated by the surface and stop it escaping to space.

Remember · Natural greenhouse effect: CO2, CH4, water vapour trap outgoing infrared; keeps Earth ≈ 15°C instead of ≈ −18°C (a 33°C difference).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 9 Exploration, Ch 13 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 9 · Exploration, Chapter 13 “Greenhouse gases like CO2, CH4 and water vapour absorb this re-radiated heat, preventing it from escaping into space. Without the atmosphere, the Earth would be too cold for life to survive.”
NASA Science: What is the greenhouse effect? ↗ “If carbon dioxide were removed, the terrestrial greenhouse effect would collapse, and Earth's surface temperature would drop significantly, by approximately 33°C (59°F). … Part of what makes Earth so amenable is its natural greenhouse effect, which maintains an average temperature of 15 ° C (59 ° F) .”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q30

Government schemes & initiatives Easy

राष्ट्रीय गोकुल मिशन के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यह ग्रामीण निर्धनों के उत्थान के लिए महत्त्वपूर्ण है क्योंकि अधिकांश न्यून उत्पादकता वाले देशज पशु छोटे और सीमान्त कृषकों तथा भूमिहीन श्रमिकों के पास होते हैं।
II.इसे वैज्ञानिक रूप में और साकल्यवादी रूप में देशज गोपशु और भैंस के पालन और संरक्षण को प्रोत्साहित करने के लिए आरंभ किया गया था।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I और II दोनों

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, run by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying since December 2014, exists to develop and conserve indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds on scientific lines. The Department itself says it matters for the rural poor because more than 80% of low-yielding indigenous animals belong to small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

✓ I The Department describes the scheme as crucial for the rural poor, since more than 80% of the low-producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
✓ II It was launched in December 2014 to develop and conserve indigenous bovine breeds scientifically, alongside genetic upgradation and higher milk productivity.

Remember · Rashtriya Gokul Mission (Dec 2014, Dept of Animal Husbandry and Dairying): conserve and develop indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds; realigned 2021–22 to 2025–26.

Sources

Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying: Rashtriya Gokul Mission ↗ “The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is being implemented since December 2014 for development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds, genetic upgradation of bovine population, and enhancement of milk productivity and production. … Scheme is crucial for upliftment of rural poor as more than 80% low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q31

Minerals, energy & industry Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: अध्ययनों से सूचित होता है कि सीमेंट उद्योग से उत्सर्जित कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड का वैश्विक कार्बन उत्सर्जन में उसके 5% से अधिक का योगदान है।
कथन II: सीमेंट का निर्माण करते समय चूना-पत्थर में सिलिका-युक्त मृत्तिका मिलाई जाती है।
कथन III: सीमेंट निर्माण हेतु क्लिंकर उत्पादन के दौरान चूना-पत्थर, चूना में बदल जाता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II. Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III. Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) कथन II और कथन III दोनों सही हैं किन्तु उनमें से केवल एक, कथन I की व्याख्या करता है

Cement is among the largest single industrial sources of carbon dioxide, about 7% of global emissions according to the International Energy Agency. Both manufacturing facts are true, but only Statement III explains the emissions: heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to make lime releases carbon dioxide directly, on top of the fuel burnt in the kiln. Mixing silica-bearing clay with limestone is simply part of the recipe.

✓ Statement I The International Energy Agency puts the cement sector's share of global carbon dioxide emissions at about 7%, which is well above 5%.
✓ Statement II Cement needs limestone plus silica and alumina, which come mainly from clay or shale; this is true but does not by itself produce the carbon dioxide.
✓ Statement III In the kiln, calcium carbonate breaks down into calcium oxide (lime) and carbon dioxide; this 'process emission' is the main reason cement is so carbon-intensive, so III explains I.

Remember · Cement CO2 is about 7% of global emissions (IEA); most comes from calcination (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2) in clinker making, the rest from kiln fuel.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 Science, Ch 1 (practise this chapter) · Class 10 Contemporary India – II, Ch 6 (practise this chapter)

Sources

International Energy Agency: Cement technology roadmap plots path to cutting CO2 emissions 24% by 2050 (copy of the IEA news page) ↗ “The cement sector is the third-largest industrial energy consumer in the world, responsible for 7% of industrial energy use, and the second industrial emitter of carbon dioxide, with about 7% of global emissions.”
NCERT Class 10 · Science, Chapter 1 “Decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide on heating is an important decomposition reaction used in various industries. Calcium oxide is called lime or quick lime. It has many uses – one is in the manufacture of cement.”
NCERT Class 10 · Contemporary India – II, Chapter 6 “This industry requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica and gypsum.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q32

Climate change & agreements Hard

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: 28वें संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु परिवर्तन सम्मेलन (COP28) में, भारत ने ‘जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य विषयक घोषणा’ पर हस्ताक्षर नहीं किया।
कथन II: COP28 जलवायु और स्वास्थ्य विषयक घोषणा एक बाध्यकर घोषणा है; और इस पर हस्ताक्षर कर देने पर स्वास्थ्य सेक्टर का विकार्बनन करना अधिदेशात्मक हो जाता है।
कथन III: यदि भारत के स्वास्थ्य सेक्टर का विकार्बनन किया जाए, तो इसकी स्वास्थ्य-देखभाल प्रणाली के लचीलेपन पर संकट आ सकता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.

Statement II. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III. If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) कथन II और कथन III में से केवल एक सही है तथा वह कथन I की व्याख्या करता है

India is not among the signatories of the COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health (Dubai, December 2023); the list on the COP28 site goes from Iceland straight to Indonesia. The declaration is a political declaration whose commitments are made 'according to our national circumstances', so Statement II is wrong.

✓ Statement I India did not sign: the list of signatories on the COP28 site names 151 signatories, including the European Union, and India is not among them. The declaration was launched on COP28's inaugural Health Day, 3 December 2023.
✗ Statement II The declaration is not a mandate: its signatories commit to better integrating health into climate policy and to promoting steps such as assessing health-system emissions and developing action plans and decarbonisation targets, all 'according to our national circumstances'. Signing does not make decarbonising the health sector mandatory.
✓ Statement III UPSC's official key treats this as correct; we could not confirm India's stated reason from an official source, so we do not explain it here.

Remember · COP28 (Dubai, 2023) Declaration on Climate and Health: first Health Day at a COP, 151 signatories; India is not on the list. Commitments are 'according to our national circumstances', not mandatory.

Sources

COP28 UAE Presidency: COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health ↗ · reference work “To achieve these aims - according to our national circumstances - we commit to pursuing the better integration of health considerations into our climate policy processes, … Promoting steps to curb emissions and reduce waste in the health sector, such as by assessing the greenhouse gas emissions of health systems, and developing action plans, nationally determined decarbonization targets, … 54. Hungary 55. Iceland 56. Indonesia 57. Iran 58. Iraq 59. Ireland 60. Israel 61. Italy”
WHO: COP28 UAE Declaration on climate and health ↗ “In a historic milestone marking the inaugural Health Day at the 28th UN Climate Change Conference (COP28), global leaders united in endorsing the health and climate change declaration,”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q33

Earth, landforms & geomorphology Hard

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: वैज्ञानिक अध्ययन यह सुझाते हैं कि पृथ्वी के घूर्णन और अक्ष में परिवर्तन हो रहा है।
कथन II: सौर संस्फुरों (फ्लेयर्स) और उससे संबद्ध किरीटी द्रव्यमान निष्कासनों ने पृथ्वी के सबसे बाहरी वायुमंडल पर विशाल ऊर्जा-राशि की बौछार कर दी है।
कथन III: जैसे-जैसे पृथ्वी का ध्रुवीय हिम पिघलता है, जल की प्रवृत्ति विषुवत्-वृत्त की ओर जाने की होती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II. Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III. As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Both Statement II and Statement III are true, but only Statement III explains Statement I. Melting polar ice moves mass from the poles towards the equatorial ocean, and such shifts of mass change Earth's rotation and axis. A solar storm heats the upper atmosphere but does not shift the planet's mass, so it cannot explain a change in rotation or axis.

✓ I NASA-funded studies show Earth's spin axis drifts (polar motion) and its rotation slows, as mass is redistributed on and within the planet.
✓ II Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do hit Earth's upper atmosphere with charged particles and energy and can heat it. This is a space-weather effect and does not move Earth's mass, so it does not explain Statement I.
✓ III Faster melting of ice sheets has shifted mass from the poles towards the equatorial ocean. This redistribution of mass is the cause of the change in rotation and axis, so it explains Statement I.

Remember · Ice melt shifts mass from the poles to the equatorial oceans, changing Earth's spin axis and lengthening the day; solar storms only affect the upper atmosphere.

Sources

NASA-Funded Studies Explain How Climate Is Changing Earth’s Rotation (NASA, Internet Archive copy) ↗ “In recent decades, the faster melting of ice sheets has shifted mass from the poles toward the equatorial ocean. … These resulting shifts in mass cause the planet to wobble as it spins and its axis to shift location — a phenomenon called polar motion.”
Solar Storms and Flares (NASA Science, Internet Archive copy) ↗ “temporarily heat up Earth’s upper atmosphere, causing it to swell and increase drag on some Earth-orbiting satellites, which makes the satellites slow down and lose altitude.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q34

Climate change & agreements X-Ray · Core #3 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते के अनुच्छेद 6 की चर्चा, सतत विकास और जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक वैश्विक चर्चाओं में बारम्बार आती है।
कथन II: जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते का अनुच्छेद 6, कार्बन बाज़ारों के सिद्धांतों को निर्दिष्ट करता है।
कथन III: जलवायु परिवर्तन विषयक पेरिस समझौते के अनुच्छेद 6 का आशय देशों को अपने जलवायु लक्ष्य प्राप्त करने हेतु उनके बीच गैर-बाज़ारी रणनीतियों का संवर्धन करना है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III. Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन II और कथन III दोनों सही हैं तथा वे दोनों कथन I की व्याख्या करते हैं

Article 6 is the Paris Agreement's provision on voluntary cooperation between countries. It covers market approaches (carbon-market rules) and non-market approaches, so II and III are both true. Because it is the Agreement's route for cross-border carbon trading and other cooperation, it features regularly in climate and sustainable-development talks, which is what Statement I says; II and III explain that.

✓ Statement I Article 6 deals with international cooperation on carbon markets and non-market approaches, so it is a regular subject in climate and sustainable-development negotiations.
✓ Statement II Article 6.2 lays down the principles for voluntary cooperative approaches that transfer mitigation outcomes between countries (sustainable development, environmental integrity, transparency, robust accounting), and 6.4 sets up a mechanism for emission reductions.
✓ Statement III Article 6.8 recognises non-market approaches that help countries implement their nationally determined contributions, and 6.9 defines a framework to promote them.

Remember · Article 6 of the Paris Agreement: 6.2 = voluntary cooperative approaches (internationally transferred mitigation outcomes), 6.4 = a mitigation mechanism under COP/CMA authority, 6.8 = non-market approaches.

Sources

UNFCCC: Paris Agreement (English text), Article 6.2 ↗ “Parties shall, where engaging on a voluntary basis in cooperative approaches that involve the use of internationally transferred mitigation outcomes towards nationally determined contributions, promote sustainable development and ensure environmental integrity and transparency … Parties recognize the importance of integrated, holistic and balanced non-market approaches being available to Parties to assist in the implementation of their nationally determined contributions, in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q35

International organisations & groupings X-Ray · Core #33 Easy

निम्नलिखित में से किस एक ने ‘एशिया और प्रशांत क्षेत्रों के लिए प्रकृति समाधान (नेचर सॉल्यूशन्स) वित्त हब’ प्रारंभ किया?

Read this question in English

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) · (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) · (c) The New Development Bank (NDB) · (d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) एशियाई विकास बैंक (ADB)

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28 in Dubai on 4 December 2023. It aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programmes that include nature-based solutions, especially from capital markets and private capital.

✓ (a) ADB's own news release calls it 'ADB's Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific' and says ADB launched it at COP28.
✗ (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a separate regional lender and is not the launcher of this hub, though it too works in the Asia-Pacific.
✗ (d) The IBRD (World Bank) did not launch this hub; the initiative belongs to ADB, as its own release says.

Remember · Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific: launched by ADB at COP28 (Dubai, 4 December 2023), aiming to draw at least $2 billion into nature-based solutions.

Sources

ADB news release: ADB and Partners Launch Nature Financing Initiative for Asia and the Pacific (4 December 2023) ↗ · reference work “The Asian Development Bank (ADB) today launched a Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28 which aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programs that incorporate nature-based solutions”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q36

Climate change & agreements Medium

‘प्रत्यक्ष वात प्रग्रहण (डाइरेक्ट एयर कैप्चर)’, जो नई उभरती प्रौद्योगिकी है, के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

I.इसे कार्बन प्रच्छादन की एक विधि के रूप में प्रयोग में ला सकते हैं।
II.यह प्लास्टिक उत्पादन हेतु और खाद्य प्रसंस्करण में एक बहुमूल्य उपागम हो सकता है।
III.विमानन में, यह संश्लिष्ट न्यून-कार्बन ईंधन जनन हेतु हाइड्रोजन में मिलाने के लिए कार्बन का स्रोत हो सकता है।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only · (b) III only · (c) I, II and III · (d) None of the above statements is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I, II और III

Direct air capture (DAC) pulls CO2 straight out of ambient air. The captured CO2 can be stored underground, which removes it from the atmosphere, or used as a carbon feedstock for products such as food and beverages, chemicals and some plastics, and, combined with hydrogen, for synthetic aviation fuel. All three statements describe real uses.

✓ I Capturing CO2 from the air and storing it permanently removes it from the atmosphere; this is carbon removal by sequestration.
✓ II Air-captured CO2 can serve as a climate-neutral feedstock for a range of products, from food and beverages to chemicals, and some plastics are among the CO2-based products.
✓ III Air-captured CO2 combined with hydrogen is used to make synthetic hydrocarbon fuels, notably for aviation.

Remember · Direct air capture takes CO2 from ambient air: store it (carbon removal) or use it (food and beverages, chemicals, plastics, and synthetic fuels made with hydrogen).

Sources

IEA: Direct Air Capture: A key technology for net zero (2022), Abstract ↗ · reference work “Capturing CO2 directly from the air and permanently storing it removes the CO2 from the atmosphere, providing a way to balance emissions that are difficult to avoid … Air-captured CO2 can also be used as a climate-neutral feedstock to produce a range of products, from synthetic aviation fuels to food and beverages. … Early commercial efforts to develop synthetic aviation fuels using air-captured CO2 and hydrogen have started, reflecting the important role that these fuels could play”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q37

Biodiversity, plants & animals X-Ray · Core #1 Medium

पीकॉक टैरेंटुला (गूटी टैरेंटुला) के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यह एक सर्वभक्षी परुष-कवची (क्रस्टेशियाई) है।
II.इसका प्राकृतिक आवास भारत में केवल कुछ वनों तक ही सीमित है।
III.अपने प्राकृतिक आवास में यह एक वृक्षीय जाति है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) I and III · (c) II only · (d) II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) II और III

The Gooty (peacock) tarantula, Poecilotheria metallica, is a spider, so it is an arachnid and not a crustacean, and it hunts animal prey rather than being an omnivore. It is a tree-dwelling species restricted to a few forest patches in the Eastern Ghats, so II and III are correct.

✗ I Tarantulas belong to the class Arachnida (order Araneae, family Theraphosidae), not to the crustaceans, and Britannica says they feed mainly at night on insects and occasionally on small frogs, toads and mice, so 'omnivorous crustacean' is wrong on both counts.
✓ II The species is endemic to India and is Critically Endangered because it is restricted to a small, highly degraded forest area in the Eastern Ghats (between Nandyal and Giddalur, Andhra Pradesh); a later record extended its range to the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu, but it remains confined to a few forest areas.
✓ III Its genus, Poecilotheria, is the only tarantula genus that is specifically arboreal, living in trees in the forests of peninsular India and Sri Lanka.

Remember · Gooty (peacock) tarantula, Poecilotheria metallica: an arboreal spider (arachnid), endemic to a small Eastern Ghats forest area in India; IUCN Critically Endangered.

Sources

Journal of Threatened Taxa (2019) 11(10): Range extension of the Gooty Tarantula Poecilotheria metallica in the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu, India ↗ · reference work “This species is endemic to India, and according to the current IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, the species is categorized as Critically Endangered, as it is restricted to a 100km² highly degraded forest between Nandyal and Giddalur in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh … The old world genus Poecilotheria Simon, 1885 of the subfamily Poecilotheriinae is the only genus specifically arboreal in habit, occurring largely in the dry deciduous and evergreen forests or wooded areas in peninsular India and Sri Lanka”
Encyclopaedia Britannica: Tarantula (taxonomy) ↗ · reference work “Taxonomy Kingdom: Animalia Phylum: Arthropoda Class: Arachnida Order: Araneae Infraorder: Mygalomorphae Family: Theraphosidae … many make burrows in soil and feed mainly at night on insects and occasionally small frogs, toads, and mice; some species are arboreal.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q38

Climate change & agreements X-Ray · Core #3 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारत में कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड (CO2) उत्सर्जन 0·5 t CO2 प्रति व्यक्ति से कम है।
II.ईंधन दहन से CO2 उत्सर्जन के आधार पर, भारत एशिया-प्रशांत क्षेत्र में दूसरे स्थान पर है।
III.भारत में विद्युत् और ताप उत्पादक, CO2 उत्सर्जन के सबसे बड़े स्रोत हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita.

II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only · (b) II only · (c) II and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल II और III

India emits about 2 tonnes of CO2 per person, four times the 0.5 t in Statement I. It is the world's third-largest emitter, behind China and the United States, so within Asia-Pacific it is second after China. Power and heat generation is the biggest emitting activity, so II and III are correct.

✗ I The IEA puts India's per capita emissions at around 2 tonnes, less than half the world average of 4.6 tonnes, but far above 0.5 t.
✓ II India is the third-largest source of global energy-related CO2 (after China and the US). China is the only bigger emitter in Asia-Pacific, which makes India second in the region.
✓ III India's own report to the UNFCCC shows energy industries (mainly electricity and heat generation) as the largest contributor within the energy sector, with a 56.53% share of the sector's 2020 emissions.

Remember · India's CO2: about 2 t per person (world about 4.6 t); third-largest emitter globally, second in Asia-Pacific after China; power and heat generation is the largest source.

Sources

IEA: CO2 Emissions in 2023 (per capita) ↗ · reference work “However, India’s per capita emissions remain very low, at around 2 tonnes, less than half the world average of 4.6 tonnes. … India surpassed the European Union to become the third largest source of global emissions in 2023.”
Government of India: India's Fourth Biennial Update Report to the UNFCCC (BUR-4), GHG inventory 2020 ↗ “Within the energy sector, energy industries are the largest contributor with a 56.53 per cent (12,65,328 GgCO2e) of total emissions”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q39

Biodiversity, plants & animals X-Ray · Core #27 Hard

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	पादप	वर्णन
I.	कसावा	काष्ठीय झाड़ी
II.	अदरक	आभासी-तनायुक्त शाक
III.	मालाबार पालक	शाकीय आरोही लता
IV.	पुदीना	वार्षिक झाड़ी
V.	पपीता	काष्ठीय झाड़ी

उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. Cassava — Woody shrub

II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem

III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber

IV. Mint — Annual shrub

V. Papaya — Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two · (b) Only three · (c) Only four · (d) All the five

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल तीन

Cassava (woody shrub), ginger (herb with a pseudostem) and Malabar spinach (climber) are matched correctly. Mint is a herbaceous perennial, not an annual shrub, and papaya is a tree-like herb, not a woody shrub. That makes three correct pairs.

✓ I FAO describes cassava as a woody perennial shrub that grows 1 m to 5 m tall.
✓ II Ginger is a slender perennial herb; its leafy shoot is a pseudostem formed by the leaf sheaths, not a true stem.
✓ III Malabar spinach (Basella) has soft, succulent, branched climbing stems, so it is a herbaceous climber.
✗ IV Mint is a herbaceous perennial that spreads by stolons; it is a herb, not a shrub.
✗ V FAO calls papaya a fast-growing tree-like herb, so it is not a woody shrub.

Remember · Cassava = woody shrub; ginger = herb with a pseudostem; Malabar spinach = climber; mint = herbaceous perennial; papaya = tree-like herb (not woody).

Sources

FAO: Save and Grow: Cassava (2013) ↗ “Botanically, cassava is a woody perennial shrub, which grows from 1 m to 5 m in height.”
Spices Board India: Ginger ↗ · reference work “Ginger is a slender perennial herb, 30-50 cm tall with palmately branched rhizome bearing leafy shoots. The leafy shoot is a pseudostem formed by leaf sheath and bears 8 to 12 distichous leaves.”
FAO: Trees commonly cultivated in Southeast Asia (Carica papaya) ↗ “A fast growing tree-like herb, 10–30 cm in diameter and 2 to 10 m high.”
Review of the genus Mentha (peer-reviewed, hosted by NIH/PMC) ↗ “Mint species are aromatic, herbaceous perennial plants that are characterized by wide-spreading underground and overground stolons”
Basella alba L. (Malabar spinach) paper (peer-reviewed, hosted by NIH/PMC) ↗ “Plants classified under the Basella genus are edible succulents characterized by small, dark blue stone fruits and distinctive branched, climbing stems with alternate leaves.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q40

Ecology & ecosystems X-Ray · Core #41 Medium

पृथ्वी ग्रह के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.वर्षा वन, महासागरों द्वारा उत्पादित ऑक्सीजन की तुलना में अधिक ऑक्सीजन उत्पादित करते हैं।
II.समुद्री पादप-प्लवक और प्रकाश-संश्लेषी जीवाणु विश्व में ऑक्सीजन का लगभग 50% उत्पादित करते हैं।
III.वायुमंडलीय हवा में विद्यमान ऑक्सीजन की तुलना में, सुचारू रूप से ऑक्सीकृत पृष्ठ-जल में अनेक गुना अधिक ऑक्सीजन होती है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II · (b) II only · (c) I and III · (d) None of the above statements is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल II

The oceans, through photosynthesis by plankton and some bacteria, generate about half or more of the oxygen on Earth, so rain forests do not out-produce them: NOAA notes that one marine bacterium alone makes more oxygen than all tropical rainforests combined. Water can hold only a small amount of dissolved oxygen compared with air, so surface water never has several times more oxygen than the atmosphere.

✗ I Roughly half of Earth's oxygen production comes from the ocean (IUCN says more than half), and NOAA notes that the marine bacterium Prochlorococcus alone produces up to 20% of the biosphere's oxygen, a higher share than all the tropical rainforests combined.
✓ II NOAA says roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean, mostly from oceanic plankton: drifting plants, algae and some bacteria that can photosynthesize.
✗ III NCERT notes that the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low compared with the amount of oxygen in air, which is why aquatic organisms breathe much faster than land ones. Water is therefore poorer in oxygen than air, not richer.

Remember · The ocean makes about half or more of Earth's oxygen (mostly phytoplankton); water holds far less oxygen than air.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 Science, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

IUCN (with IOC-UNESCO): Ocean deoxygenation: Everyone's problem (foreword) ↗ “The ocean generates more than half the oxygen we breathe.”
NCERT Class 10 · Science, Chapter 5 “Since the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms.”
NOAA National Ocean Service: How much oxygen comes from the ocean? ↗ “Scientists estimate that roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean. The majority of this production is from oceanic plankton — drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria that can photosynthesize. … this little bacteria produces up to 20% of the oxygen in our entire biosphere . That’s a higher percentage than all of the tropical rainforests on land combined.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q41

Industry, infrastructure & investment X-Ray · Core #39 Easy

निम्नलिखित प्रकार के वाहनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.पूर्ण बैटरी विद्युत् वाहन
II.हाइड्रोजन ईंधन सेल वाहन
III.ईंधन सेल-विद्युत् हाइब्रिड वाहन

उपर्युक्त में से कितने वैकल्पिक पॉवरट्रेन वाहन माने जाते हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

An alternative powertrain vehicle is one driven by something other than a conventional internal combustion engine running on petrol or diesel. Battery-electric cars, hydrogen fuel-cell cars and fuel-cell hybrids that pair a fuel cell with an electric drive all fit, so all three are alternative powertrain vehicles.

✓ I A full battery electric vehicle has a battery charged from the grid and always operates in all-electric mode (US DOE Alternative Fuels Data Center); the World Bank lists battery electric vehicles among the alternative technologies countries are adopting.
✓ II A hydrogen fuel-cell vehicle is powered by hydrogen and produces no harmful tailpipe pollutants, unlike a conventional internal combustion engine vehicle; the World Bank treats it as another alternative to battery-powered vehicles.
✓ III A fuel cell-electric hybrid is built around a fuel cell supplying an electric motor, with a battery storing braking energy (US DOE), so it too replaces the conventional engine and counts as an alternative powertrain.

Remember · Alternative powertrains replace the conventional petrol/diesel engine: battery electric, hydrogen fuel cell and fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles all count.

Sources

World Bank blog: Powering tomorrow's cities: Alternative fuel vehicles can spur growth and jobs (29 April 2025) ↗ “When countries adopt technologies like battery electric vehicles or hydrogen fuel cell vehicles, they incur multiple economic and health benefits … Battery-powered vehicles are just one option for governments seeking cleaner transportation solutions. Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs), powered by hydrogen, offer another promising alternative with unique advantages.”
US Department of Energy, Alternative Fuels Data Center: Electric Vehicles (all-electric vehicles) ↗ “All-electric vehicles, also called battery electric vehicles, have a battery that is charged by plugging the vehicle in to charging equipment.”
US Department of Energy, Alternative Fuels Data Center: Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles ↗ “Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen . They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe pollutants … regenerative braking systems that capture the energy lost during braking and store it in a battery.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q42

IT, computing & emerging technologies X-Ray · Core #24 Easy

मानव-रहित वायव वाहनों (UAV) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.सभी प्रकार के UAV ऊर्ध्वाधर अवतरण (लैंडिंग) कर सकते हैं।
II.सभी प्रकार के UAV स्वतः मंडरा सकते हैं।
III.सभी प्रकार के UAV शक्ति पूर्ति के स्रोत के रूप में केवल बैटरी का प्रयोग कर सकते हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कितने सही हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कोई नहीं

UAVs come in different designs with different abilities. Fixed-wing UAVs fly like aeroplanes and need a launcher and a landing device, while hovering and vertical take-off and landing belong to multirotor and hybrid VTOL types. Drones can also run on gasoline or hydrogen fuel cells, not only batteries. So none of the three 'all types' claims is correct.

✗ I Fixed-wing UAVs get lift from a rigid wing like an aeroplane and need launch infrastructure and a landing device; vertical landing is a feature of multirotor and VTOL types.
✗ II Hovering capability is one of the ways drones differ. Multirotors hover; fixed-wing UAVs, which rely on forward flight for lift, do not.
✗ III Battery power is only one option. Gasoline-powered drones give longer flight times, and fuel-cell (hydrogen) UAVs also exist, so not every UAV is battery-only.

Remember · UAV types differ: multirotor and VTOL can hover and land vertically, fixed-wing cannot; power may be battery, gasoline or hydrogen fuel cell.

Sources

World Bank: Drones for Development: Overview of Opportunities in Latin America and the Caribbean (2024), Appendix 1 (fixed-wing) ↗ “Fixed wings do, however, require a launch infrastructure, usually a propulsion ramp and a landing device. … They work on the principle of the helicopter, offering hovering and vertical takeoff and landing capability. … Gasoline-powered drones offer extended flight times but may be noisy and heavy and contribute to GHG emissions.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q43

Physics & chemistry in everyday life X-Ray · Core #44 Easy

विद्युत् वाहन बैटरियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित तत्त्वों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.कोबाल्ट
II.ग्रेफाइट
III.लिथियम
IV.निकेल

उपर्युक्त में से कितने सामान्यतया बैटरी के कैथोड बनाने के लिए उपयुक्त होते हैं?

Read this question in English

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt

II. Graphite

III. Lithium

IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल तीन

In a lithium-ion cell the cathode is a metal-oxide material built from lithium with nickel, cobalt (and manganese), as in the common NMC type. Graphite is the anode material, not part of the cathode. So three of the four elements make up cathodes.

✓ I Cobalt is one of the metals in the active cathode material.
✗ II Graphite forms the anode of the cell, not the cathode.
✓ III Lithium is a cathode mineral (the IEA lists lithium, nickel, cobalt and manganese for the cathode).
✓ IV Nickel is a main cathode metal; nickel-rich cathodes are a key trend in EV batteries.

Remember · EV battery cathode: lithium with nickel, cobalt (and manganese). Anode: graphite.

Sources

IEA: The Role of Critical Minerals in Clean Energy Transitions (2021), battery minerals ↗ · reference work “Cells typically account for 70% to 85% of the total battery weight, and contain a number of minerals in the active cathode material (e.g. lithium, nickel, cobalt and manganese), anode (e.g. graphite), and current collector (e.g. copper)”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q44

Pollution & waste X-Ray · Core #60 Easy

निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए :

I.धूम्रपान के बाद सिगरेट के बचे हुए टुकड़े
II.चश्मे के लेंस
III.कार के टायर

उपर्युक्त में से कितनों में प्लास्टिक होता है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts

II. Eyeglass lenses

III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

All three contain plastic. Cigarette filters are made mainly of cellulose acetate fibres, which are microplastics; many eyeglass lenses are plastic (for example CR-39 and polycarbonate); and tiny plastic particles are shed by car tyres as they wear.

✓ I The WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control Secretariat says cigarette filters are mainly composed of microplastics known as cellulose acetate fibres.
✓ II Many spectacle lenses are made of plastic: a peer-reviewed study of spectacle lens materials covers CR-39, polycarbonate and Trivex, and calls CR-39 lenses the most basic form of plastic lenses.
✓ III IUCN counts particles worn off car tyres among the tiny plastic particles that reach the oceans.

Remember · Cigarette filters (cellulose acetate), eyeglass lenses (CR-39, polycarbonate) and car tyres (which shed microplastics) all contain plastic.

Sources

WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control Secretariat: World No Tobacco Day campaign raises alarm on tobacco industry environmental impact (31 May 2022) ↗ “These cigarettes contain filters mainly composed of microplastics known as cellulose acetate fibres.”
IUCN: Invisible plastic particles from textiles and tyres a major source of ocean pollution (22 February 2017) ↗ “Tiny plastic particles washed off products such as synthetic clothes and car tyres could contribute up to 30% of the ‘plastic soup’ polluting the world’s oceans”
Radiation protection properties of spectacle lens materials (peer-reviewed paper, hosted by NIH/PMC) ↗ “CR-39 lenses are the most basic form of plastic lenses, and the abbe value is the highest, which means that the optical quality is the best. … the radiation protection properties of spectacle lens (CR-39, Polycarbonate and Trivex) materials were investigated”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q45

Minerals, energy & industry Medium

निम्नलिखित पदार्थों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.एथेनॉल
II.नाइट्रोग्लिसरीन
III.यूरिया

उपर्युक्त में से कितनों के उत्पादन में कोयला गैसीकरण प्रौद्योगिकी प्रयुक्त की जा सकती है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol

II. Nitroglycerine

III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

Coal gasification turns coal into syngas, which is then converted into fuels and chemicals. India's Ministry of Coal lists ethanol among these products and describes the Talcher plant converting syngas to ammonia and then urea. Nitroglycerine is made by nitrating glycerine with nitric and sulphuric acids and is not one of the coal-gasification products, so only two of the three qualify.

✓ I The Ministry of Coal includes ethanol among the liquid fuels made from syngas and notes that a policy change is under way to include ethanol from the coal gasification route.
✗ II Nitroglycerine (glyceryl trinitrate) comes from nitrating glycerine with mixed nitric and sulphuric acids; it is not a syngas product.
✓ III At Talcher, coal blended with pet-coke is gasified to syngas, converted into ammonia and then into urea.

Remember · Coal gasification gives syngas, then methanol, ethanol, ammonia and urea (Talcher fertiliser plant). Nitroglycerine comes from glycerine and nitrating acids, not from syngas.

Sources

Ministry of Coal: National Coal Gasification Mission (100 MT Coal Gasification by 2030), syngas products ↗ “Liquid Fuels such as Methanol, Ethanol, Synthetic diesel and Chemical and Petrochemicals like Methanol derivatives, Olefins, Propylene, Mono-Ethylene Glycol (MEG), nitrogenous fertilizers including Ammonia … Coal blended with pet-coke up to 25% shall be gassified to produce syngas, which shall be converted into Ammonia and subsequently to 1.27 Mt tonnes of neem coated Urea annually.”
PubChem (US National Library of Medicine, NIH), Nitroglycerin: Methods of Manufacturing (from HSDB) ↗ “It is prepared by continuous two-phase nitration of glycerol in anhydrous mixed acid. The mass ratio of pure anhydrous glycerol (H2O less than 0.5%) and 50:50 mixed acid is 1:5.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q46

Defence, nuclear & energy technology X-Ray · Core #45 Medium

कभी-कभी समाचार माध्यमों में चर्चित सामान्यतया CL-20, HMX और LLM-105 के रूप में ज्ञात रासायनिक पदार्थों में सर्वनिष्ठ अभिलक्षण क्या है?

Read this question in English

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants · (b) These are explosives in military weapons · (c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles · (d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) ये सैन्य आयुधों के अंतर्गत विस्फोटक हैं

CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are all high explosives, the kind packed into warheads and other military munitions. None of them is a refrigerant or a fuel; they release energy by detonating, not by burning steadily with oxygen from outside.

✓ (b) DRDO's High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune, made CL-20 in the laboratory as a more powerful explosive than HMX, which fills most warheads. LLM-105 is also an explosive, an insensitive one whose performance lies between HMX and TATB.
✗ (c) Cruise missiles are propelled by ordinary fuels burnt in an engine. These three compounds sit in the warhead, not in the fuel tank.
✗ (a) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) refrigerants are gases used for cooling; these three are solid explosive compounds, so they have nothing to do with refrigeration.
✗ (d) Rocket propellants are designed to burn in a controlled way. These compounds are designed to detonate and are used as explosive fills.

Remember · CL-20 (most powerful of the three), HMX and LLM-105 (an insensitive explosive) are high-energy explosives for warheads, not fuels or refrigerants.

Sources

PIB (Ministry of Defence): Pune-based DRDO lab makes most powerful conventional explosive ↗ “the warheads are mostly packed with HMX, FOX-7 or amorphous Boron. Scientists at the Pune-based High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL) have already synthesized adequate quantity of CL-20 in the laboratory.”
OSTI (US Department of Energy): Characterization of LLM-105 as an Insensitive High Explosive Material ↗ “is a new molecule which has performance and insensitivity between those of HMX and TATB. Its calculated energy content is about 85% that of HMX and 15% more than that of TATB.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q47

IT, computing & emerging technologies Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.ऐसी अपेक्षा है कि मेजोराना 1 चिप, क्वांटम कंप्यूटिंग को सुकर बनाएगा।
II.मेजोराना 1 चिप, ऐमेजॉन वेब सर्विसेज (AWS) द्वारा आरंभ किया गया है।
III.डीप लर्निंग, मशीन लर्निंग का एक उप-समुच्चय है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल I और III

Statements I and III are correct; Statement II is wrong because Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services. Deep learning is a narrower technique inside machine learning, which itself sits inside artificial intelligence.

✓ I Microsoft announced Majorana 1 on 19 February 2025 as a quantum chip built on a new Topological Core architecture, which it expects will lead to quantum computers that can solve industrial-scale problems.
✗ II The chip was introduced by Microsoft (announced on 19 February 2025), not by Amazon Web Services.
✓ III Machine learning is a subset of AI, and deep learning, which uses neural networks with many layers, is a subset of machine learning.

Remember · Majorana 1 is Microsoft's topological quantum chip (Feb 2025); AI contains machine learning, which contains deep learning.

Sources

Microsoft Source: Microsoft's Majorana 1 chip carves new path for quantum computing (19 Feb 2025) ↗ · reference work “the world’s first quantum chip powered by a new Topological Core architecture that it expects will realize quantum computers capable of solving meaningful, industrial-scale problems in years, not decades.”
Machine Learning and Deep Learning based AI Tools for Development of Diagnostic Tools (NIH/PMC) ↗ “Machine learning (ML) is a subset of AI that can learn from extracted data and models to perform a task whereas deep learning (DL) is a subset of ML that imitates the human brain functioning”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q48

Biotechnology & genetics Easy

प्रायः समाचारों में चर्चित, एकक्लोनी प्रतिरक्षियों (मोनोक्लोनल ऐंटिबॉडी) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.वे मानव-निर्मित प्रोटीन हैं।
II.वे विशिष्ट प्रतिजनों (एंटीजेन) से बंधन बनाने की अपनी क्षमता के कारण प्रतिरक्षात्मक प्रकार्य को उद्दीपित करते हैं।
III.वे निपा विषाणु के संक्रमण जैसे विषाणु संक्रमणों के उपचार में प्रयुक्त होते हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

All three statements are correct. Monoclonal antibodies are identical antibody proteins made in a laboratory, each locking on to one specific antigen, and one of them (m102.4) was kept ready in India to treat Nipah virus patients.

✓ I They are antibodies, which are proteins, produced in the laboratory (for example from hybridoma cells), not by the patient's own body.
✓ II Each one is designed to bind a single antigen with high precision, and that binding helps the immune system attack the target.
✓ III The monoclonal antibody m102.4 was procured by ICMR for Nipah cases, and a facility to administer it was set up in Kerala during the 2019 outbreak.
• Since then WHO's fact sheet says there is no licensed specific treatment or vaccine for Nipah yet, so such antibodies are used on an emergency or experimental basis.

Remember · Monoclonal antibodies are lab-made, single-target antibody proteins; m102.4 is the one kept ready by ICMR against Nipah virus.

Sources

A Comprehensive Review of Monoclonal Antibodies in Modern Medicine (NIH/PMC) ↗ “Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced molecules engineered to mimic the immune system's ability to fight off harmful pathogens and diseased cells”
Experiential learnings from the Nipah virus outbreaks in Kerala (ICMR authors, Indian J Med Res, via PMC) ↗ “monoclonal antibodies (m102.4) preparations and administrations in Nipah cases, if necessary.”
WHO fact sheet: Nipah virus ↗ “There is currently no treatment or vaccine available for Nipah virus, however several candidate products are under development.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q49

Biotechnology & genetics Easy

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.महासागरी जल में कोई विषाणु जीवित नहीं बच सकता।
II.कोई विषाणु, जीवाणुओं में संक्रमण नहीं कर सकता।
III.कोई विषाणु, परपोषी कोशिका में कोशिकीय अनुलेखनात्मक सक्रियता को परिवर्तित नहीं कर सकता।

उपर्युक्त में से कितने कथन सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कोई भी नहीं

None of the statements is correct, because each one is an absolute claim ("no virus can...") and a single counter-example disproves it. Viruses are abundant in seawater, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and many viruses take over the host cell's gene activity.

✗ I Viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the oceans, reaching up to about 10 crore (10^8) particles in every millilitre of seawater.
✗ II Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. NCERT describes how a phage attaches to a bacterium and its genetic material enters the bacterial cell.
✗ III An infected cell treats the viral genetic material as its own and makes more virus particles, so its gene activity is redirected. Many viruses actively shut off the host's own gene expression to help themselves multiply.

Remember · Viruses live in seawater, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and viruses reprogram host-cell gene activity, so 'no virus can...' statements are false.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Biology, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Biology, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Biology, Chapter 5 “They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages. The bacteriophage attaches to the bacteria and its genetic material then enters the bacterial cell.”
NCERT Class 12 · Biology, Chapter 5 “The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic material as if it was its own and subsequently manufactures more virus particles.”
Marine Viruses: Key Players in Marine Ecosystems (Viruses, via NIH/PMC) ↗ “The discovery that viruses were the most abundant biological entities in oceanic marine environments”
Shutoff of Host Gene Expression in Influenza A Virus and Herpesviruses (Viruses, via NIH/PMC) ↗ “The ability to shut off host gene expression is a shared feature of many viral infections, and it is thought to promote viral replication by freeing host cell machinery and blocking immune responses.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q50

Pollution & waste Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: सक्रियित कार्बन बहिःस्रावी धाराओं में से प्रदूषकों को हटाने और विभिन्न उद्योगों से आने वाले संदूषकों के उपचारण हेतु एक अच्छा और आकर्षक साधन है।
कथन II: सक्रियित कार्बन का एक वृहत् पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल होता है और उसमें भारी धातुओं को अधिशोषित करने की दमदार शक्यता है।
कथन III: सक्रियित कार्बन, उच्च कार्बन अंश वाले वातावरणीय अपशिष्टों में से आसानी से संश्लेषित किया जा सकता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement I. Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II. Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III. Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन II और कथन III दोनों सही हैं तथा वे दोनों कथन I की व्याख्या करते हैं

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I. A large surface area lets activated carbon hold heavy metals and other pollutants on its surface, and because it can be made cheaply from carbon-rich waste, it becomes an attractive tool for cleaning effluents.

✓ II Activated carbon is highly porous, with a very large surface area and strong adsorption capacity. Pollutants stick to that surface (adsorption), which is exactly how it strips heavy metals from wastewater. This explains why it removes pollutants (Statement I).
✓ III Farm and other carbon-rich wastes are the usual raw material for activated carbon, and the process is simple and cheap. This low cost explains why it is 'attractive' as a treatment tool (Statement I).
✗ (b) This option says only one of II and III explains Statement I. But the ability to adsorb (II) explains the 'good' part and the cheap, waste-based supply (III) explains the 'attractive' part, so both explain it.
✗ (d) Both statements are supported by published research on biomass-derived activated carbon, so 'neither is correct' fails.

Remember · Activated carbon = porous, huge surface area, strong adsorbent, cheaply made from carbon-rich waste; hence widely used to clean effluents.

Sources

Adsorption of heavy metal onto biomass-derived activated carbon: review (RSC Advances, via NIH/PMC) ↗ “Biomass-derived activated carbon adsorbents offer large adjustable specific surface area, hierarchically porous structure, strong adsorption capacity, and excellent high economic applicability. … Agricultural waste is usually the first choice to prepare biomass-derived activated carbon, attributing to its high specific surface area, high stability, excellent adsorption properties, simple production process and low price.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q51

Parliament & the Union executive Medium

भारतीय राज्य-व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.अध्यादेश किसी केन्द्रीय अधिनियम को संशोधित कर सकता है।
II.अध्यादेश किसी मूल अधिकार को न्यून कर सकता है।
III.अध्यादेश किसी पिछली तारीख से प्रभावी हो सकता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल I और III

Statements I and III are correct; Statement II is wrong. An Ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend Central Acts and can be given effect from an earlier date, but it is void if it goes beyond what Parliament may enact, and Parliament cannot make a law that abridges a Fundamental Right.

✓ I Article 123(2) gives an Ordinance 'the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament'. The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Second Ordinance, 2016, for example, amended the Enemy Property Act, 1968 and another Central Act.
✗ II Article 123(3) makes an Ordinance void if it contains anything Parliament cannot enact. Article 13(3)(a) says 'law' includes an Ordinance, and Article 13(2) bars the State from making any law that takes away or abridges a Fundamental Right.
✓ III An Ordinance can carry a retrospective date. The 2016 Enemy Property Second Ordinance, promulgated on 2 April 2016, was itself deemed to have come into force on 7 January 2016.

Remember · Ordinance (Art. 123) = same force as an Act, can amend Acts and be retrospective, but cannot go beyond Parliament's powers or abridge Fundamental Rights (Art. 13).

Sources

Constitution of India, Article 123 (Legislative Department, 2024 edition) ↗ “An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament … If and so far as an Ordinance under this article makes any provision which Parliament would not under this Constitution be competent to enact, it shall be void. … The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.”
Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Second Ordinance, 2016 (Ministry of Law and Justice, reproduced in the Tamil Nadu Government Gazette) ↗ “This Ordinance may be called the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Second Ordinance, 2016. (2) Save as otherwise provided, it shall be deemed to have come into force on the 7th day of January, 2016.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q52

Post-independence India Medium

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	राज्य	वर्णन
I.	अरुणाचल प्रदेश	एक किले से राजधानी का नाम पड़ा और राज्य में दो राष्ट्रीय उद्यान (नैशनल पार्क) हैं
II.	नागालैंड	यह राज्य एक संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम के आधार पर अस्तित्व में आया
III.	त्रिपुरा	प्रारंभ में यह भाग ‘ग’ (पार्ट ‘सी’) राज्य था, यह 1956 में राज्यों का पुनर्गठन होने पर केन्द्र-शासित राज्यक्षेत्र बना और बाद में इसने एक पूर्ण राज्य का दर्जा प्राप्त किया

उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. Arunachal Pradesh — The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

II. Nagaland — The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act

III. Tripura — Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

UPSC's official answer: (c) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (b)

Pairs I and III are plainly right: Itanagar is named after Ita Fort and Arunachal has two National Parks (Namdapha and Mouling); Tripura went from Part C State to Union Territory in 1956 and to full statehood in 1972.
Pair II says Nagaland 'came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act'. The State was in fact formed by an ordinary law under Article 3, the State of Nagaland Act, 1962: 'An Act to provide for the formation of the State of Nagaland and for matters connected therewith'.
The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 did something else: it inserted Article 371A's special provisions for the new State, and its own Statement of Objects says 'A separate Bill for the formation of the new State relatable to article 3 is also being introduced'. On this strict reading pair II is wrong and the answer is (b).
UPSC's key links Nagaland's creation to the Thirteenth Amendment, passed in the same session to give effect to the 16-point agreement and commonly listed as the amendment that made Nagaland a State, so it counts all three: (c).

UPSC's key counts pair II, linking Nagaland's statehood to the Thirteenth Amendment; strictly, the State was formed by the State of Nagaland Act under Article 3, which gives (b). In the exam, treat Nagaland's statehood as resting on the Thirteenth Amendment, as UPSC does.

The State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (Act 27 of 1962), long title (Telangana High Court copy) ↗“An Act to provide for the formation of the State of Nagaland and for matters connected therewith.”
The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962: Statement of Objects and Reasons (Legislative Department) ↗“A separate Bill for the formation of the new State relatable to article 3 is also being introduced.”
The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962: Statement of Objects and Reasons, why the amendment was needed ↗“As these matters are peculiar to the proposed new State of Nagaland, provision with respect thereto has to be made in the Constitution itself.”

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

UPSC's key counts all three pairs as correct. Itanagar is named after Ita Fort and Arunachal has two National Parks; Nagaland's statehood rests on the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, which gave the new State its special provisions; and Tripura went from a Part C State to a Union Territory in 1956 and a full State in 1972.

✓ I Itanagar takes its name from Ita Fort ('the fort of bricks'). Arunachal's two National Parks are Namdapha (1972) and Mouling (1986).
✓ II Nagaland became a State on 1 December 1963. The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 was passed with the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 to give effect to the 16-point agreement with the Naga People's Convention, inserting Article 371A for the new State; UPSC treats this amendment as the basis on which the State came into being.
✓ III Tripura was a Part C State after 1950, became a Union Territory with the reorganisation of States in 1956, and became a full State on 21 January 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Remember · Itanagar = Ita Fort; Nagaland statehood 1963 (Art. 371A via 13th Amendment); Tripura: Part C State, then UT in 1956, then State on 21 January 1972.

Sources

Arunachal Tourism (Government of Arunachal Pradesh): Itanagar ↗ · reference work “Itafort, ‘the fort of bricks’ from which the State capital derives its name, is situated in the heart of the Itanagar.”
Department of Environment, Forest & Climate Change, Govt. of Arunachal Pradesh: Mouling National Park ↗ “It was the second national park to be created in the state, after Namdapha National Park in 1972.”
The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962: Statement of Objects and Reasons (Legislative Department) ↗ “As these matters are peculiar to the proposed new State of Nagaland, provision with respect thereto has to be made in the Constitution itself. … A separate Bill for the formation of the new State relatable to article 3 is also being introduced.”
Government of Tripura, Education Department: State Profile ↗ “Initially, a part 'C' state, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganisation of states in 1956. In 1972, Tripura attained the status of a full-fledged state.”
The State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (Act 27 of 1962), long title and section 3 (Telangana High Court copy) ↗ “An Act to provide for the formation of the State of Nagaland and for matters connected therewith.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q53

Federalism, states & centre–state relations Medium

भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए :

I.अंतर-राज्य परिषद्
II.राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा परिषद्
III.क्षेत्रीय परिषदें

उपर्युक्त में से कितनी भारत के संविधान के उपबंधों के अनुसार स्थापित हुईं?

Read this question in English

With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल एक

Only the Inter-State Council was set up as per a provision of the Constitution, namely Article 263. Zonal Councils exist under a law of Parliament, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and the National Security Council is an executive body with no place in the Constitution's text.

✓ I Article 263 lets the President establish an inter-State Council by order. The Inter-State Council was set up on that basis by a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990.
✗ II The Constitution contains no provision for a National Security Council. It is an apex body headed by the Prime Minister, formed by the Government.
✗ III The five Zonal Councils were created under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, so they are statutory, not constitutional, bodies.

Remember · Inter-State Council: constitutional (Art. 263). Zonal Councils: statutory (States Reorganisation Act, 1956). National Security Council: executive body, not in the Constitution.

Sources

Constitution of India, Article 263 (Legislative Department, 2024 edition) ↗ “263. Provisions with respect to an inter-State Council.—If at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council charged with the duty of—”
Inter-State Council Secretariat (Ministry of Home Affairs): Inter-State Council Genesis ↗ “Government of India accepted the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission to set-up an Inter-State Council and notified the establishment of the Inter-State Council vide Presidential Order dated 28.05.1990.”
Inter-State Council Secretariat (Ministry of Home Affairs): Zonal Councils Genesis ↗ “The Zonal Councils were created vide Part-III of the States Re-Organisation Act, 1956”
PIB (Ministry of Home Affairs): National Policy on Security ↗ “All aspects of national security are deliberated upon by the National Security Council (NSC), the apex body, headed by the Prime Minister.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q54

Federalism, states & centre–state relations X-Ray · Core #17 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारत के संविधान में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लिखित है कि कतिपय बातों में किसी राज्य का राज्यपाल अपने विवेकानुसार कार्य करता है।
II.भारत का राष्ट्रपति, अपने-आप, किसी राज्य विधान-मंडल द्वारा पारित विधेयक को भले ही वह संबंधित राज्य के राज्यपाल द्वारा न भेजा गया हो, अपने विचार के लिए आरक्षित कर सकता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

Statement I is right: Article 163(1) makes the Governor act on the advice of his Ministers except where the Constitution itself requires him to act in his discretion. Statement II is wrong: a State Bill reaches the President only when the Governor reserves it, so the President cannot call it up on his own.

✓ I Article 163(1) carves out the matters in which the Governor is required 'by or under this Constitution' to act in his discretion, and Article 163(2) makes his own decision on whether a matter falls there final.
✗ II Article 201 deals with a Bill 'reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President'. The route to the President starts with the Governor's reservation; the Constitution gives the President no power to reserve a State Bill himself.

Remember · Governor acts on ministerial advice except where the Constitution requires his discretion (Art 163). A State Bill reaches the President only if the Governor reserves it (Arts 200–201).

Sources

Constitution of India (Government of India, Legislative Department), Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor ↗ “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. … When a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President, the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q55

Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties X-Ray · Core #32 Easy

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	भारत के संविधान में उपबंध	किसके अधीन कथित
I.	राज्य की लोक सेवा में न्यायपालिका का कार्यपालिका से पृथक्करण	राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्त्व
II.	हमारी सामासिक संस्कृति की समृद्ध विरासत का महत्त्व समझना और उसका परिरक्षण करना	मूल कर्तव्य
III.	कारखानों में 14 वर्ष से कम आयु के बच्चों के नियोजन का निषेध	मूल अधिकार

उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the State Policy

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture — The Fundamental Duties

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

All three pairs are correct. Article 50 (a Directive Principle) asks the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services, Article 51A(f) makes valuing our composite culture a Fundamental Duty, and Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) bars employing a child below fourteen in a factory.

✓ I Article 50 sits in Part IV. As a Directive Principle it guides the State but, under Article 37, cannot be enforced by a court.
✓ II Article 51A(f), in Part IVA, lists among citizens' duties 'to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture'.
✓ III Article 24, in Part III, says no child below fourteen shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous employment.

Remember · Art 50 (DPSP): separate judiciary from executive. Art 51A(f) (Duty): value composite culture. Art 24 (Fundamental Right): no child under 14 in factories, mines or hazardous work.

Sources

Constitution of India (Government of India, Legislative Department), Article 50: Separation of judiciary from executive ↗ “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. … (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture … No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q56

Federalism, states & centre–state relations Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

भारत के संविधान के संदर्भ में, यदि पाँचवीं अनुसूची के अधीन किसी राज्य में कोई क्षेत्र अनुसूचित क्षेत्र घोषित कर दिया जाता है, तो

I.ऐसे क्षेत्रों में राज्य सरकार अपनी कार्यपालिका शक्ति खो देती है और एक स्थानीय निकाय पूर्ण प्रशासन ग्रहण कर लेता है
II.संघ की सरकार कतिपय परिस्थितियों में राज्यपाल की सिफारिश पर ऐसे क्षेत्रों के पूर्ण प्रशासन को अपने हाथ में ले सकती है

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration

II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) न तो I और न ही II

Neither statement is correct. Scheduled Areas remain under the State's own administration: the Governor reports on them to the President, and the Union's executive power extends only to giving directions to the State about their administration.

✗ I Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule has the Governor report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas 'in that State', and the Union then directs the State. The State keeps its executive power; the Schedule provides a Tribes Advisory Council, not a local body that takes over.
✗ II The Union's power under paragraph 3 is to give directions to the State on administering these areas. It is not a power to take over the administration, and the Governor's recommendation does not trigger any takeover.

Remember · Fifth Schedule: State administers Scheduled Areas, Governor reports annually to the President, Union can only direct the State (Para 3). District councils belong to the Sixth Schedule.

Sources

Constitution of India (Government of India, Legislative Department), Fifth Schedule, paragraph 3: Report by the Governor to the President regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas ↗ “regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the administration of the said areas”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q57

Constitutional, statutory & regulatory bodies X-Ray · Core #9 Hard

भारत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	संगठन	संघ का मंत्रालय
I.	राष्ट्रीय ऑटोमोटिव बोर्ड	वाणिज्य और उद्योग मंत्रालय
II.	कॉयर बोर्ड	भारी उद्योग मंत्रालय
III.	राष्ट्रीय व्यापार सूचना केन्द्र	सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यम मंत्रालय

उपर्युक्त में से कितने युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

I. The National Automotive Board — Ministry of Commerce and Industry

II. The Coir Board — Ministry of Heavy Industries

III. The National Centre for Trade Information — Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कोई भी नहीं

None of the pairs is correct. The National Automotive Board works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and the National Centre for Trade Information belongs to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

✗ I The National Automotive Board is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
✗ II The Coir Board (Kochi) is listed among the statutory and autonomous bodies of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the Government of India's Allocation of Business Rules, not of Heavy Industries.
✗ III The National Centre for Trade Information is listed among the trade-promotion measures on the Ministry of Commerce and Industry's website, where it is described as jointly promoted by ITPO and NIC; it is not an MSME body.

Remember · National Automotive Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries. Coir Board (Kochi, statutory): Ministry of MSME. National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Sources

Ministry of Heavy Industries: National Automotive Board, Annual Report 2024-25 ↗ “National Automotive Board (NAB) is an autonomous society, under Ministry of Heavy Industries incorporated in 2013”
Ministry of Commerce and Industry: Trade Promotion Measures (National Centre for Trade Information; copy of the page) ↗ “National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) Jointly promoted by India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO) and National Informatics Centre (NIC), NCTI is involved in assimilation and dissemination of useful trade information.”
Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, Cabinet Secretariat: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises ↗ “PART V - STATUTORY AND AUTONOMOUS BODIES AND TRAINING INSTITUTES: 9. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), Mumbai. 10. Coir Board (CB), Kochi.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q58

Making of the Constitution, Preamble & features X-Ray · Core #15 Medium

भारत के संविधान के अधीन निम्नलिखित विषयों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.सातवीं अनुसूची में सूची I–संघ सूची
II.किसी राज्य की कार्यपालिका शक्ति का विस्तार
III.राज्यपाल के पद के लिए शर्तें

उपर्युक्त में से किसके संबंध में संविधान संशोधन के लिए भारत के राष्ट्रपति को अनुमति के लिए विधेयक प्रस्तुत किए जाने से पूर्व, कम-से-कम आधे राज्यों के विधान-मंडलों द्वारा अनुसमर्थन अपेक्षित है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor's office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I और II

The proviso to Article 368(2) lists what needs ratification by at least half the States, and the list includes Article 162 (extent of a State's executive power) and any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) are not in that list, so Parliament's special majority is enough for them.

✓ I Clause (c) of the proviso covers 'any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule', so a change to the Union List needs State ratification.
✓ II Article 162, which fixes the extent of a State's executive power, is named in clause (a) of the proviso.
✗ III Article 158, 'Conditions of Governor's office', is not among the articles or Chapters the proviso lists, so no State ratification is needed.

Remember · Ratification by half the States: Arts 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, 279A; Union and State judiciary chapters; Seventh Schedule Lists; States' representation in Parliament; Article 368 itself.

Sources

Constitution of India (Government of India, Legislative Department), Article 368(2), proviso: matters needing ratification by the States ↗ “article 162, article 241 or article 279A]; or (b) Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI; or (c) any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule; or (d) the representation of States in Parliament; or (e) the provisions of this article, … the amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q59

Federalism, states & centre–state relations X-Ray · Core #17 Easy

भारतीय राज्य-व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.किसी राज्य का राज्यपाल अपने पद की शक्तियों और दायित्वों के प्रयोग और निष्पादन के लिए किसी न्यायालय के प्रति उत्तरदायी नहीं है।
II.राज्यपाल के विरुद्ध उसकी पदावधि के दौरान कोई दांडिक कार्यवाही संस्थित नहीं की जाएगी या जारी नहीं रखी जाएगी।
III.किसी राज्य विधान-मंडल के सदस्य सदन के अंदर कही गई किसी भी बात के लिए किसी भी न्यायालय में कार्यवाही के लिए दायी नहीं हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

All three statements follow the Constitution's text. Article 361 shields the Governor from answering to any court for his official acts and bars criminal proceedings during his term, and Article 194(2) protects a State legislator from court proceedings over what he says in the House.

✓ I Article 361(1): the Governor is not answerable to any court for exercising and performing the powers and duties of his office.
✓ II Article 361(2): no criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted or continued against the Governor in any court during his term of office.
✓ III Article 194(2): no member of a State Legislature is liable to any court proceedings for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature or a committee of it.

Remember · Governor: no court answerability for official acts (Art 361(1)) and no criminal proceedings during the term (Art 361(2)). Legislators: no court liability for House speech or votes (Art 194(2)).

Sources

Constitution of India (Government of India, Legislative Department), Article 361(1): Protection of President and Governors ↗ “The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office … No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor 1*** of a State, in any court during his term of office. … No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q60

Constitutional, statutory & regulatory bodies X-Ray · Core #9 Medium

निम्नलिखित क्रियाकलापों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.कच्चे तेल का उत्पादन
II.पेट्रोलियम का परिष्करण, संग्रहण और वितरण
III.पेट्रोलियम उत्पादों का विपणन और विक्रय
IV.प्राकृतिक गैस का उत्पादन

उपर्युक्त क्रियाकलापों में से कितने हमारे देश में पेट्रोलियम और प्राकृतिक गैस नियामक बोर्ड द्वारा विनियमित हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

Only II and III are regulated. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 covers refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas, and it expressly leaves out the production of crude oil and natural gas.

✗ I Producing crude oil is upstream work and is excluded from the Board's remit.
✓ II Refining, storage and distribution are named activities under the Act.
✓ III Marketing and sale of petroleum products are named activities under the Act.
✗ IV The Act excludes the production of natural gas, although transporting, distributing and selling it are regulated.

Remember · PNGRB (Act of 2006) regulates refining, storage, transport, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum and natural gas, but not upstream production of crude oil or natural gas.

Sources

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 (No. 19 of 2006), Section 1(4), on the PNGRB website ↗ “It applies to refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q61

Budget, taxation & public finance X-Ray · Core #49 Medium

मान लीजिए सरकार का राजस्व व्यय ₹ 80,000 करोड़ है और राजस्व प्राप्ति ₹ 60,000 करोड़ है। सरकारी बजट ₹ 10,000 करोड़ के उधार-ग्रहण और ₹ 6,000 करोड़ के ब्याज भुगतान को भी प्रदर्शित करता है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

I.राजस्व घाटा ₹ 20,000 करोड़ है।
II.राजकोषीय घाटा ₹ 10,000 करोड़ है।
III.प्राथमिक घाटा ₹ 4,000 करोड़ है।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

All three are correct. Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, so ₹80,000 crore − ₹60,000 crore = ₹20,000 crore. The fiscal deficit is the government's total borrowing requirement, here ₹10,000 crore, and the primary deficit, which is that figure without the ₹6,000 crore of interest, is ₹4,000 crore.

✓ I Spending on the revenue account (₹80,000 crore) overshoots what the government earns on that account (₹60,000 crore) by ₹20,000 crore, and that gap is the revenue deficit.
✓ II The fiscal deficit shows how much the government must borrow. The Budget shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crore, so the fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crore.
✓ III Take the ₹10,000 crore fiscal deficit and leave out the ₹6,000 crore that goes to interest; what remains, ₹4,000 crore, is the primary deficit.

Remember · Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts. Fiscal deficit = borrowing requirement. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − interest payments.

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government's revenue expenditure over revenue receipts Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts”
NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “The fiscal deficit will have to be financed through borrowing. Thus, it indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources.”
NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q62

India & the world: places, pacts & relations Easy

भारत, अंतर्राष्ट्रीय उत्तर-दक्षिण परिवहन कॉरिडोर (INSTC), जो एक बहु-मोडल परिवहन कॉरिडोर है, के संस्थापक सदस्यों में से एक है। यह कॉरिडोर किन्हें जोड़ेगा?

Read this question in English

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran · (b) India to Central Asia via China · (c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar · (d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) भारत से मध्य एशिया से यूरोप को, ईरान होते हुए

The INSTC is a multi-modal route from the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf through Iran to the Caspian Sea and on to Russia and northern Europe, and it is also meant to link India with Central Asia. So 'India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran' fits, while none of the other options runs through Iran.

✓ (a) Iran is the core of the corridor. The government describes it as a route via Iran to the Caspian Sea and onward to Russia and northern Europe, and as a way to connect India to Russia and Central Asian countries.
✗ (b) The corridor goes through Iran, not China.
✗ (c) The corridor runs west from India through Iran; a route to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar is a different, eastern link.
✗ (d) Leaving out Iran misses the corridor's essential link, and this option also leaves out Central Asia.

Remember · INSTC: multi-modal India–Iran–Caspian–Russia–Europe corridor that also links India to Central Asia; Chabahar port in Iran is its Indian gateway.

Sources

PIB, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (19 Jan 2023): Workshop on 'Linking Chabahar Port with INSTC' ↗ “The International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal transportation route linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran and onward to northern Europe via St. Petersburg in Russia. … Successful activation of the corridor will help connect India to Russia and Central Asian countries.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q63

Minerals, energy & industry X-Ray · Core #40 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: विश्व के दो प्रमुख एथेनॉल उत्पादकों, ब्राज़ील और संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका, में से संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका की तुलना में ब्राज़ील अधिक एथेनॉल उत्पादित करता है।
कथन II: जहाँ संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में एथेनॉल उत्पादन के लिए प्रधान भरण-सामग्री (फीडस्टॉक) मक्का है, इसके विपरीत ब्राज़ील में एथेनॉल उत्पादन के लिए प्रधान भरण-सामग्री गन्ना है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement-II. Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कथन I सही नहीं है किन्तु कथन II सही है

Statement I is wrong because the United States, not Brazil, is the world's largest ethanol producer. Statement II is correct: corn is the main feedstock in the United States and sugarcane in Brazil.

✗ Statement-I The United States produced over 16 billion gallons of ethanol in 2024; the same data table puts Brazil at roughly 9 billion gallons, so Brazil is second.
✓ Statement-II Most US ethanol is made from corn, while Brazil mainly uses sugarcane.

Remember · The US is the top ethanol producer (mostly from corn); Brazil is second (mainly from sugarcane). Together they make about 80 per cent of the world's ethanol.

Sources

US Department of Energy, Alternative Fuels Data Center: Global Ethanol Production by Country or Region ↗ “The United States is the world's largest producer of ethanol, having produced over 16 billion gallons in 2024. … The vast majority of U.S. ethanol is produced from corn, while Brazil primarily uses sugarcane.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q64

Climate change & agreements Medium

विश्व बैंक ने यह चेतावनी दी है कि भारत ऐसे प्रथम स्थानों में से एक बन सकता है, जहाँ आर्द्र-बल्ब तापमान (वेट-बल्ब टेम्परेचर) नेमी तौर पर 35 °C से अधिक होगा। निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से उपर्युक्त रिपोर्ट के निहितार्थ को सर्वोत्तम रूप में प्रतिबिम्बित करता है/करते हैं?

I.सर्वाधिक संभावना है कि प्रायद्वीपीय भारत बाढ़, उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात और सूखे से ग्रस्त होता रहेगा।
II.मानव समेत सभी प्राणियों की उत्तरजीविता प्रभावित होगी क्योंकि उनके लिए पसीने के माध्यम से अपने शरीर के ताप को निकालना मुश्किल होता जाएगा।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I और II दोनों

UPSC's official answer: (c) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

What we believe is right: (b)

Statement II is the direct implication. Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity; 'as the wet-bulb temperature approaches your core temperature, you lose the ability to cool down' (NASA), and the World Bank treats 35 °C as the point where heat waves 'break the human survivability limit'.
Statement I is not an implication of that warning. The World Bank report (Climate Investment Opportunities in India's Cooling Sector, 2022) projects the 35 °C threshold for 'the Chota Nagpur Plateau and North-Eastern India', and nowhere mentions floods, tropical cyclones, droughts or peninsular India.
A warning about heat stress does not imply a forecast of flooding and cyclones for a different region, so a strict reading accepts II only: (b).
UPSC's key accepts both, presumably reading the warning as one face of climate change over India whose other faces are floods, cyclones and drought.

UPSC's key accepts both statements; the report itself supports only II, giving (b). In the exam, when the stem says 'best reflect(s) the implication' and 'Both' is offered, UPSC has accepted a broad climate-impact statement alongside the direct one; but know what the report actually says.

World Bank (2022): Climate Investment Opportunities in India's Cooling Sector, the warning ↗“Soon India could become one of the first places in the world to experience heat waves that break the human survivability limit”
World Bank (2022): Climate Investment Opportunities in India's Cooling Sector, where 35 °C is projected ↗“climate models project that these temperatures could exceed the survivability threshold (that is, 35°C) at a few locations in the Chota Nagpur Plateau and North-Eastern India under future climate scenarios”
NASA Science: Too Hot to Handle, how wet-bulb temperature stops the body cooling ↗“But as the wet-bulb temperature approaches your core temperature, you lose the ability to cool down.”

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

UPSC's key accepts both statements. Statement II is the direct implication: wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity, and as it nears the body's core temperature sweat can no longer evaporate fast enough to shed heat, so survival itself is threatened. Statement I is counted as the wider implication: the key reads the warning as a sign of a climate system under stress over India, whose other faces are flooding, tropical cyclones and drought.

✓ I UPSC's key counts this as an implication. The report's warning of routine 35 °C wet-bulb readings signals a warmer, moister atmosphere over India; the key reads the hazards that go with such warming — heavier rain and flooding, stronger cyclones on the peninsula's coasts, longer dry spells — as part of what the warning implies.
✓ II Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. Near the body's core temperature, sweat cannot evaporate enough to cool the body (NASA), and the World Bank treats 35 °C as that survivability threshold.

Remember · Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. Near 35 °C sweat cannot cool the body, so survival is at risk; the World Bank flagged India as an early case.

Sources

World Bank (2022): Climate Investment Opportunities in India's Cooling Sector ↗ “Soon India could become one of the first places in the world to experience heat waves that break the human survivability limit … climate models project that these temperatures could exceed the survivability threshold (that is, 35°C) at a few locations in the Chota Nagpur Plateau and North-Eastern India under future climate scenarios”
NASA Science: Too Hot to Handle: How Climate Change May Make Some Places Too Hot to Live ↗ “As long as the wet-bulb temperature is well below your skin temperature, your body can release heat to your surroundings through radiation and sweating. But as the wet-bulb temperature approaches your core temperature, you lose the ability to cool down.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q65

Budget, taxation & public finance X-Ray · Core #49 Medium

किसी देश का राजकोषीय घाटा ₹ 50,000 करोड़ है। इसे गैर-ऋण सर्जक पूँजीगत प्राप्तियों के माध्यम से ₹ 10,000 करोड़ प्राप्त हो रहे हैं। उस देश की ब्याज देयताएँ ₹ 1,500 करोड़ हैं। उसका सकल प्राथमिक घाटा कितना है?

Read this question in English

A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹ 48,500 crores · (b) ₹ 51,500 crores · (c) ₹ 58,500 crores · (d) None of the above

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) ₹ 48,500 करोड़

Gross primary deficit = gross fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities = ₹50,000 crore − ₹1,500 crore = ₹48,500 crore. The ₹10,000 crore of non-debt capital receipts is already counted while working out the fiscal deficit, so it is not adjusted again.

✓ (a) 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore, using the primary deficit formula.
✗ (b) ₹51,500 crore adds the interest liabilities instead of subtracting them.
✗ (c) ₹58,500 crore wrongly brings in the ₹10,000 crore of non-debt receipts, which are already reflected in the fiscal deficit.
✗ (d) The correct figure, ₹48,500 crore, is option (a).

Remember · Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities. Non-debt capital receipts are already netted out inside the fiscal deficit.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities”
NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q66

Budget, taxation & public finance Hard

भारत के 15वें वित्त आयोग की सिफारिशों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में कौन-कौन से कथन सही हैं?

I.इसने राज्यों द्वारा शिक्षा परिणामों में उन्नयन लाने हेतु प्रोत्साहन राशि प्रदान करने के लिए वर्ष 2022–23 से वर्ष 2025–26 तक ₹ 4,800 करोड़ के अनुदान की अनुशंसा की है।
II.संघ के करों के निवल आगम का 45%, राज्यों के साथ बाँटा जाना चाहिए।
III.सभी राज्यों के लिए कृषि सुधारों के क्रियान्वयन हेतु निष्पादन आधारित प्रोत्साहन के रूप में ₹ 45,000 करोड़ रखे जाएँ।
IV.इसने राजकोषीय निष्पादन को पुरस्कृत करने हेतु कर प्रयास निकष (टैक्स एफर्ट क्राइटेरिया) को फिर से आरम्भ किया।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III · (b) I, II and IV · (c) I, III and IV · (d) II, III and IV

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) I, III और IV

Statements I, III and IV match the Fifteenth Finance Commission's report. Statement II is wrong: the Commission kept the States' share at 41 per cent of the divisible pool, not 45 per cent.

✓ I It recommended ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore a year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivise States to improve educational outcomes.
✗ II Vertical devolution was kept at 41 per cent of the divisible pool: the Fourteenth Commission's 42 per cent, adjusted by about 1 per cent for the change in the status of Jammu and Kashmir.
✓ III ₹45,000 crore was set aside as a performance-based incentive for States carrying out agricultural reforms, such as amending land-related laws on the lines of NITI Aayog's model law.
✓ IV The Commission re-introduced the tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.

Remember · 15th Finance Commission (2021–26): States' share 41% of divisible pool; ₹4,800 crore education incentive; ₹45,000 crore agri-reform incentive; tax-effort criterion re-introduced.

Sources

PIB, Finance Commission (1 Feb 2021): The Report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission ↗ “XVFC has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crore (Rs. 1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivising the States to enhance educational outcomes. … XVFC has recommended maintaining the vertical devolution at 41 per cent – the same as in our report for 2020-21. … XVFC has recommended that Rs. 45,000 crore be kept as performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms for amending their land-related laws on the lines of NITI Aayog’s model law … XVFC has re-introduced tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q67

External sector & international economic bodies Easy

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पुनर्निर्माण और विकास बैंक (IBRD) के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यह मध्यम आय वाले देशों को ऋण और गारंटी प्रदान करता है।
II.यह गरीबी कम करने में विकासशील देशों की सहायता के लिए अकेले ही कार्य करता है।
III.इसकी स्थापना द्वितीय विश्व-युद्ध के उपरांत यूरोप के पुनर्निर्माण में सहायता हेतु की गई थी।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल I और III

I and III are correct. The IBRD lends and gives guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, and it was created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after the Second World War. II is wrong because the IBRD does not work alone: it joins with the IDA to form the World Bank and works with the wider World Bank Group and with public and private partners.

✓ I The World Bank describes the IBRD as providing loans, guarantees, risk management products and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
✗ II The IBRD joins with the IDA to form the World Bank, and it works closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and with public and private sectors, so it does not work single-handedly.
✓ III Created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after the Second World War; NCERT says it was set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

Remember · IBRD (1944, Bretton Woods): lends to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries; with IDA forms the World Bank; set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 India and the Contemporary World – II, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 10 · India and the Contemporary World – II, Chapter 3 “The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (popularly known as the World Bank) was set up to finance post- war reconstruction.”
World Bank: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) ↗ “providing loans, guarantees, risk management products, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, as well as by coordinating responses to regional and global challenges … Created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after World War II, IBRD joins with IDA, our fund for the poorest countries, to form the World Bank.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q68

Money, banking & monetary policy X-Ray · Core #14 Medium

RTGS और NEFT के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.RTGS में भुगतान उसी क्षण हो जाता है, जबकि NEFT के मामले में भुगतान करने में कुछ समय लगता है।
II.RTGS में ग्राहक से आवक लेनदेन के लिए प्रभार लिया जाता है जबकि NEFT में ऐसा नहीं होता।
III.RTGS के लिए कतिपय दिनों में प्रचालन के घंटे सीमित हैं जबकि NEFT में ऐसा नहीं है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) I and II · (c) I and III · (d) III only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

Only statement I is correct. RTGS settles each payment individually and continuously, whereas NEFT settles in half-hourly batches. Inward RTGS transactions carry no customer charge, and both systems run 24x7x365, so statements II and III fail.

✓ I RTGS processes payments continuously, one transaction at a time; NEFT collects payments and settles them in batches, now at half-hourly intervals.
✗ II RBI's framework for RTGS says inward transactions are free, with no charge to be levied on the customer.
✗ III RTGS has been available 24x7x365 since 14 December 2020, and NEFT also runs round the clock on all days, so neither has day-wise restrictions.

Remember · RTGS: continuous, gross settlement, 24x7x365 since 14 Dec 2020, inward transactions free. NEFT: half-hourly batches, also 24x7x365.

Sources

Reserve Bank of India, FAQs on the RTGS System: NEFT versus RTGS ↗ “NEFT is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received up to a particular time are processed in batches. Contrary to this, in RTGS, the transactions are processed continuously on a transaction-by-transaction basis throughout the day. … a) Inward transactions – Free, no charge to be levied. … RTGS is available 24x7x365 with effect from December 14, 2020.”
Reserve Bank of India, FAQs on the NEFT System: operating hours ↗ “The NEFT system is available round the clock throughout the year on all days, i.e., on 24x7x365 basis. NEFT presently operates in batches on half-hourly intervals throughout the day.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q69

Money, banking & monetary policy X-Ray · Core #14 Medium

निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.संयुक्त अरब अमीरात
II.फ्रांस
III.जर्मनी
IV.सिंगापुर
V.बांग्लादेश

उपर्युक्त में भारत के अलावा ऐसे कितने देश हैं, जहाँ UPI के द्वारा अंतर्राष्ट्रीय वणिक भुगतान (इंटरनैशनल मर्चैंट पेमेंट) स्वीकार किए जाते हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates

II. France

III. Germany

IV. Singapore

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two · (b) Only three · (c) Only four · (d) All the five

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल तीन

Of the five, UPI payments work in the United Arab Emirates, France and Singapore, so three is the count. Germany and Bangladesh are not among the countries where the Government lists UPI as live.

✓ I The UAE is among the countries where UPI is live.
✓ II France is among the countries where UPI is live.
✗ III Germany is not among the countries the Government names as having UPI live.
✓ IV Singapore is among the countries where UPI is live.
✗ V Bangladesh is not among the countries the Government names as having UPI live.
• Since then The list has grown since the exam. The Ministry of Electronics and IT told the Rajya Sabha on 6 February 2026 that UPI is live in over eight countries, including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius and Qatar; Germany and Bangladesh are still not named (PIB, 6 Feb 2026).

Remember · UPI abroad, exam-year answer: UAE, France and Singapore yes; Germany and Bangladesh no. Other live countries include Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and Qatar.

Sources

PIB, Ministry of Electronics & IT (6 Feb 2026): India has signed MoU / agreements with 23 countries for cooperation on Digital Public Infrastructure; UPI is now live in over eight countries ↗ “UPI is now live in over eight countries, including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius and Qatar, positioning India as a global leader in digital payments.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q70

Government schemes & initiatives Medium

‘पी॰ एम॰ सूर्य घर मुफ्त बिजली योजना’ के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.इसका लक्ष्य आवासीय सेक्टर में एक करोड़ घरों की छतों पर सौर पैनल लगाना है।
II.नवीन एवं नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय का लक्ष्य छतों पर सौर पैनल लगाने, उनके प्रचालन, अनुरक्षण और मरम्मत करने के विषय में आधार-स्तर पर प्रशिक्षण प्रदान करना है।
III.इसका लक्ष्य, क्षमता निर्माण के स्कीम घटक के अंतर्गत, नए कौशल सिखाकर और कौशल का उन्नयन कर तीन लाख से अधिक कुशल जनशक्ति सृजित करना है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) I and III only · (c) II and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

All three statements match the Ministry's own guidelines for the scheme. The programme aims at one crore residential rooftop solar installations, MNRE plans grass-root training in installing, operating, maintaining and repairing rooftop systems, and the capacity-building component targets more than 3 lakh skilled workers.

✓ I The first key objective of the programme is to achieve 1 crore rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector.
✓ II The Capacity Building guidelines say MNRE intends to train technicians, electricians, installers and others in installation, operation, maintenance and repair of rooftop solar systems at grass-root level.
✓ III The capacity-building component aims to create more than 3 lakh skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling, of whom at least 1 lakh are to be solar PV technicians.

Remember · PM Surya Ghar (approved 29 Feb 2024): one crore rooftop solar installations in homes; capacity building targets 3 lakh+ skilled workers, at least 1 lakh solar PV technicians.

Sources

Ministry of New and Renewable Energy: Guidelines for PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, Central Financial Assistance component ↗ “The key objectives of the programme are: a) To achieve 1 crore rooftop solar system (RTS) installation in residential sector.”
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy: Guidelines for PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, Capacity Building ↗ “The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) intends to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairing of solar roof top systems at grass root level. … To create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q71

The Gandhian era, 1917–1947 Medium

गाँधीजी ने विख्यात वक्तव्य ‘‘राजद्रोह मेरा धर्म हो गया है’’ कब दिया था?

Read this question in English

"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha · (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi · (c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London · (d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) दांडी में नमक कानून का सार्वजनिक रूप से उल्लंघन करने के समय

Gandhi said this in his speech at Borsad on 18 March 1930, during the Salt March that ended with the breaking of the salt law at Dandi. He called sedition his dharma and said he was beginning his peaceful war against the Government by violating the salt law.

✗ (a) The remark belongs to the 1930 Salt March, not to the Champaran Satyagraha.
✓ (b) In the Borsad speech he said he was 'commencing' his war on the Government 'by violating the salt law'. NCERT records that the march set out on 12 March 1930 and that at its end he made a fistful of salt, breaking the law.
✗ (c) The Second Round Table Conference in London came after the 1930 civil disobedience campaign; the speech was made on the march itself.
✗ (d) The Quit India Movement was launched years later, in 1942; it is unconnected with this speech.

Remember · Gandhi's 'sedition my dharma' remark: Borsad speech, 18 March 1930, during the Salt March, when he said he was starting his peaceful war by violating the salt law.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part III, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

The Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi, Vol. XLIII (Publications Division, Government of India), item 99: Speech at Borsad, 18 March 1930 (Internet Archive scan) ↗ · reference work “I realized that the Empire did not deserve loyalty. I felt that it deserved sedition. Hence I have made sedition my dharma. … Hence I have become ready to wage a peaceful war against this Government. I am commencing it by violating the salt law. It is for this purpose that I am undertaking this march.”
NCERT Class 12 · Themes in Indian History, Part III, Chapter 3 “On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards the ocean. He reached his destination three weeks later, making a fistful of salt as he did”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q72

Prehistory & the Harappan civilisation Easy

मोहनजोदड़ो से प्राप्त ‘नाचती हुई लड़की (डांसिंग गर्ल)’ नामक प्रख्यात नारी लघुमूर्ति किस पदार्थ की बनी है?

Read this question in English

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian · (b) clay · (c) bronze · (d) gold

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) कांस्य

The 'Dancing Girl' of Mohenjo-daro is a small bronze statue. NCERT calls it the best example of a human figure in bronze from the Indus Valley, and says Harappan bronze statues were made by the lost-wax method.

✗ (a) Carnelian was a bead stone: NCERT lists it among the materials of Harappan beads, not of statues.
✗ (b) Clay (terracotta or burnt clay) was a common Harappan material, but the Dancing Girl is a cast metal figure.
✓ (c) NCERT names the statue of a girl popularly titled 'Dancing Girl' as the best example of a human figure in bronze.
✗ (d) Gold appears in Harappan necklaces, earrings and beads, but the Dancing Girl is a bronze casting.

Remember · Dancing Girl (Mohenjo-daro): a small bronze statue of a girl, cast by the lost-wax method; the best-known Harappan human figure in bronze.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 2 “In bronze we find human as well as animal figures, the best example of the former being the statue of a girl popularly titled 'Dancing Girl'.”
NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 2 “Their bronze statues were made using the 'lost wax' technique in which the wax figures were first covered with a coating of clay and allowed to dry.”
NCERT Class 11 · An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Chapter 2 “Beads were made of carnelian, amethyst, jasper, crystal, quartz, steatite, turquoise, lapis lazuli, etc. Metals like copper, bronze and gold, and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay were also used for manufacturing beads.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q73

The Gandhian era, 1917–1947 Hard

चौरी-चौरा घटना के परिणामस्वरूप बंदी बनाए गए लोगों को किसने विधिक प्रतिरक्षा (लीगल डिफेन्स) प्रदान की?

Read this question in English

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das · (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant · (c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami · (d) M. A. Jinnah

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) मदन मोहन मालवीय और कृष्णकांत

Madan Mohan Malaviya took up the defence of the men whom the Gorakhpur Sessions Court sentenced to death over the Chauri Chaura violence, and argued their case for four days. UPSC's option pairs him with Krishna Kant.

✗ (a) That account of the Chauri Chaura defence does not mention C. R. Das; it credits Malaviya.
✓ (b) PIB, describing the Collected Works of Malaviya, records his return to the Allahabad High Court to secure justice for the accused in the Chauri-Chaura incident. Banaras Hindu University's account adds that he decided to appear for those sentenced to death and argued the case for four days.
✗ (c) Kitchlew and Nizami are not named in that account of the defence.
✗ (d) M. A. Jinnah is not named in that account of the defence.

Remember · Chauri Chaura (1922): after 170 death sentences at Gorakhpur, Madan Mohan Malaviya appeared for the accused and argued the case for four days.

Sources

PIB: Vice President releases final series of 'The Collected Works of Madan Mohan Malaviya' ↗ “his notable return to the court to secure justice for the accused in the Chauri-Chaura incident”
Banaras Hindu University, Malaviya Moolya Anusheelan Kendra: Mahamana as a Lawyer (Chauri Chaura Case) ↗ · reference work “The Sessions Court at Gorakhpur tried 225 persons for arson, looting and causing death, and returned a verdict sentencing 170 persons to death. … Malaviyaji's deep- rooted passion for justice came to the fore and he decided to appear on behalf of the innocent persons sentenced to death. He argued the case for four days.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q74

The Gandhian era, 1917–1947 Easy

निम्नलिखित में से किस एक घटना के उपरांत, गाँधीजी ने, जो अस्पृश्यता का सतत विरोध करते रहे और सभी क्षेत्रों में से उसके उन्मूलन के लिए अपील करते रहे, अपने राजनीतिक और सामाजिक कार्यक्रम में ‘हरिजनों’ के उत्थान को शामिल करने का निश्चय किया?

Read this question in English

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact · (b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact) · (c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement · (d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) पूना समझौता

Gandhi's fast in Yeravada Jail in September 1932 ended with the Poona Pact, which replaced separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with reserved seats. While he was still in prison, the Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded and the weekly Harijan started, and after his release he devoted himself almost wholly to the campaign against untouchability.

✓ (a) The Poona Pact settled the 1932 dispute over separate electorates for the Depressed Classes; the anti-untouchability organisation and the paper Harijan were started while Gandhi was still in prison, and the campaign then became the centre of his work.
✗ (b) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in March 1931 and concerned calling off Civil Disobedience, releasing prisoners and salt manufacture along the coast. It came before the 1932 fast.
✗ (d) The Government of India Act, 1935 came about three years after the Poona Pact. NCERT narrates the campaign just after the 1935 reform, which can mislead, but the campaign followed the 1932 Pact.
✗ (c) The Quit India arrests of 1942 came about ten years after Gandhi had made the upliftment of the Harijans part of his programme.

Remember · The Poona Pact (September 1932) ended Gandhi's fast; the Harijan Sevak Sangh and the weekly Harijan followed, and Gandhi then took up the anti-untouchability campaign.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 8 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 8 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Chapter 2 “A compromise was reached in the so-called ‘Poona Pact’, which, instead of separate electorates, increased the number of reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the legislatures.”
Movement Against Untouchability, Publications Division, Government of India (Mahatma Gandhi timeline) ↗ “Under Gandhi’s inspiration, while he was still in prison, a new organization. Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded to combat untouchability and a new weekly paper, the Harijan, was started.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q75

Europeans & the East India Company Hard

निम्नलिखित फलों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.पपीता
II.अनन्नास
III.अमरूद

उपर्युक्त में से कितने सोलहवीं और सत्रहवीं शताब्दियों में पुर्तगालियों द्वारा भारत में लाए गए?

Read this question in English

Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya

II. Pineapple

III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

All three fruits are New World plants that reached India through Portuguese contact: pineapple in the sixteenth century, papaya through Portuguese (and Spanish) sailors carrying seeds to India, and guava in the seventeenth century.

✓ I Papaya spread from Central America; an FAO history says Spanish and Portuguese sailors took its seeds to India in the century after 1500.
✓ II The National Horticulture Board records that pineapple cultivation was introduced to India by the Portuguese in 1548.
✓ III Guava is native to tropical America; an ICAR journal states it was introduced in India by the Portuguese during the seventeenth century.

Remember · Pineapple (1548), papaya and guava are all New World fruits that the Portuguese brought to India in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.

Sources

Pineapple, bankable one-acre model, National Horticulture Board (Ministry of Agriculture, Govt of India) ↗ “Cultivation of pineapple originated in Brazil and gradually spread to other tropical parts of the world. Pineapple cultivation was introduced to India by Portuguese in 1548 AD.”
Pawpaw (Papaya) Post-harvest Compendium, Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN ↗ “During the following century Spanish and Portuguese sailors took the seeds to the Phillipines, Malaysia and India.”
Indian Journal of Agricultural Sciences (ICAR), guava germplasm study ↗ · reference work “Guava (Psidium guajava L.) is a native of tropical America, is the most valuable, economical, cultivated member of a dicot family Myrtaceae (Nakasone and Paull 1998); introduced in India by Portuguese during 17th century (Menzal 1985).”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q76

World: places, rivers & mapping X-Ray · Core #4 Hard

निम्नलिखित देशों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यूनाइटेड किंगडम
II.डेनमार्क
III.न्यूज़ीलैंड
IV.ऑस्ट्रेलिया
V.ब्राज़ील

उपर्युक्त देशों में से कितनों में चार से अधिक काल-क्षेत्र (टाइम ज़ोन) हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom

II. Denmark

III. New Zealand

IV. Australia

V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five · (b) Only four · (c) Only three · (d) Only two

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल चार

UPSC's official answer: (b) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (c)

Brazil is the clear exclusion: its legal time uses exactly four zones, 'UTC - 5 hours UTC - 4 hours UTC - 3 hours UTC - 2 hours', so it does not have more than four.
UPSC's (b) counts the other four with their overseas territories: the United Kingdom's Overseas Territories span 'nine time zones'; Australia has three mainland zones plus Norfolk Island (UTC+11), Christmas Island (UTC+7) and the Cocos Islands (UTC+6:30); New Zealand has its mainland, the Chatham Islands '45 minutes ahead', Tokelau, and the Cook Islands and Niue; Denmark has its mainland, the Faroe Islands and Greenland's three zones.
Counted strictly by distinct standard offsets, Denmark falls short: UTC+1 (Denmark), UTC+0 (shared by the Faroe Islands and Danmarkshavn), UTC-2 (most of Greenland since 2023) and UTC-4 (Pituffik) make four, not more. That leaves the United Kingdom, Australia and New Zealand: three, option (c).
New Zealand's own count depends on the Cook Islands and Niue, each 'a self-governing state in free association with New Zealand' rather than part of it; without them New Zealand has UTC+12, UTC+12:45 and Tokelau's UTC+13, and only two countries remain (d). The item turns on the counting convention.

UPSC's key is (b), on the usual tally that counts overseas territories and associated states; by distinct standard offsets Denmark has four and New Zealand three, which gives (c) or even (d). In the exam, use the common tally with territories, as UPSC does.

Brazilian Legal Time, Observatório Nacional (Ministry of Science, Technology and Innovation, Brazil) ↗“Time zones adopted in Brazilian Legal Time referenced to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC): UTC - 5 hours UTC - 4 hours UTC - 3 hours UTC - 2 hours”
Greenland shifts to new time zone, Visit Greenland (national tourism board), Internet Archive copy of 2024 ↗“Today, Greenland is divided into three time zones. The regular time zone is UTC -2”
New Zealand Ministry of Foreign Affairs and Trade: Cook Islands ↗“The Cook Islands is a self-governing state in ‘free association’ with New Zealand.”

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

Counted with overseas territories and associated states, as the usual tally does, four of the five countries have more than four time zones: the United Kingdom (its Overseas Territories span nine zones), Australia (three mainland zones plus Norfolk, Christmas and Cocos Islands at the least), New Zealand (mainland, the Chatham Islands, Tokelau, and the associated Cook Islands and Niue) and Denmark (mainland, the Faroe Islands and Greenland's three zones). Brazil's legal time uses exactly four zones, UTC-5 to UTC-2, so it does not exceed four: (b).

✓ I The House of Commons Foreign Affairs Committee notes that the British Overseas Territories are spread across nine time zones, so the United Kingdom exceeds four zones once its territories are counted.
✓ II Denmark's count is mainland Denmark (UTC+1), the Faroe Islands (Greenwich Mean Time in winter) and Greenland, which is divided into three time zones (UTC-4 at Pituffik, UTC-2 for most of the island, UTC+0 at Danmarkshavn): five zones by the usual tally.
✓ III New Zealand's count is New Zealand Standard Time (UTC+12), Chatham Island Standard Time, 45 minutes ahead of it, the territory of Tokelau (UTC+13) and the associated states of the Cook Islands (UTC-10) and Niue (UTC-11): five by the usual tally.
✓ IV The Australian Government's own table lists three mainland zones plus Norfolk Island (UTC+11), Christmas Island (UTC+7) and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands (UTC+6:30), six in all.
✗ V Brazil's official legal time uses exactly four zones, UTC-5, UTC-4, UTC-3 and UTC-2, so it does not have more than four.

Remember · Count time zones with overseas territories: UK (nine), Australia (at least six), New Zealand (five) and Denmark (five) exceed four; Brazil has exactly four (UTC-5 to UTC-2).

Sources

Global Britain and the British Overseas Territories: Resetting the relationship, House of Commons Foreign Affairs Committee ↗ · reference work “The British Overseas Territories (the OTs) are spread across four oceans and nine time zones, from Bermuda in the Atlantic to Pitcairn in the Pacific.”
Time zones and daylight saving, australia.gov.au (Australian Government), Internet Archive copy of 2021: mainland ↗ “Australia is the world's sixth largest country and is divided into three separate time zones. … Norfolk Island Standard Time (NFT) Norfolk Island Kingston UTC+11:00 Christmas Island Standard Time (CXT) Christmas Island UTC+07:00 Cocos (Keeling) Islands Standard Time (CCT) Cocos (Keeling) Islands UTC+06:30”
Greenland shifts to new time zone, Visit Greenland (national tourism board of Greenland), Internet Archive copy of 2024 ↗ · reference work “Today, Greenland is divided into three time zones. The regular time zone is UTC -2”
Brazilian Legal Time, Observatório Nacional (Ministry of Science, Technology and Innovation, Brazil) ↗ · reference work “Time zones adopted in Brazilian Legal Time referenced to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC): UTC - 5 hours UTC - 4 hours UTC - 3 hours UTC - 2 hours”
Department of Internal Affairs (New Zealand Government), press release: Daylight Saving time starts this Sunday ↗ · reference work “The Chatham Islands observes Chatham Island Standard Time, which is 45 minutes ahead for New Zealand Standard Time.”
Time zone, Visit Faroe Islands (national tourism board of the Faroe Islands); 'wither' is the page's own spelling ↗ · reference work “Time in the Faroe Islands is measured using Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) during the wither months and GMT + 1 hour during the summer.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q77

World: places, rivers & mapping Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.साइबेरिया में अनादिर और अलास्का में नोम एक-दूसरे से कुछ ही किलोमीटर दूर हैं, किन्तु जब इन शहरों में लोग जागते हैं और नाश्ते के लिए तैयार होते हैं, तब अलग-अलग दिन होते हैं।
II.जब अनादिर में सोमवार होता है, तब नोम में मंगलवार होता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

Siberia lies just west of the International Date Line and Alaska just east of it, so Anadyr and Nome are on different calendar days. Going eastward across the line you subtract a day, so Monday in Anadyr is Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

✓ I The two cities lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (about 180° longitude), so at the same moment their calendar dates differ; morning in Anadyr is still the previous day in Nome.
✗ II Moving from Siberia to Alaska is a crossing towards the east, where you subtract a day (Monday becomes Sunday). Nome is therefore a day behind Anadyr, never a day ahead.

Remember · Crossing the International Date Line travelling eastward, subtract a day; travelling westward, add a day.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 6 Exploring Society: India and Beyond, Ch 1 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 6 · Exploring Society: India and Beyond, Chapter 1 “travelling eastward, you subtract a day (say, from Monday to Sunday); if you cross it travelling westward, you add a day (from Sunday to Monday).”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q78

Social & religious reform movements Easy

इनमें से कौन ‘आत्म-सम्मान आंदोलन (सेल्फ-रेस्पेक्ट मूवमेंट)’ का संस्थापक था?

Read this question in English

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

(a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker · (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar · (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav · (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) ‘पेरियार’ ई॰ वी॰ रामास्वामी नायकर

The Self-Respect Movement was started in 1925 by E. V. Ramasami Naicker, known as Periyar, a former Congress worker who fought caste hierarchy and Brahmin dominance in Tamil Nadu and later founded the Dravidar Kazhagam.

✓ (a) NCERT records that Periyar started the self-respect movement in 1925 after leaving the Congress, and later founded the Dravidar Kazhagam.
✗ (b) Dr B. R. Ambedkar is linked with the struggle of the Depressed Classes for political safeguards such as separate electorates (NCERT), not with founding the Self-Respect Movement.
✗ (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav is not credited with founding the Self-Respect Movement.
✗ (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar is not credited with founding the Self-Respect Movement.

Remember · Periyar (E. V. Ramasami Naicker) started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925; his later organisation was the Dravidar Kazhagam.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Politics in India since Independence, Ch 7 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 12 · Politics in India since Independence, Chapter 7 “initially a worker of the Congress party; started the self-respect movement (1925); led the anti-Brahmin movement; worked for the Justice party and later founded Dravidar Kazhagam”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q79

Minerals, energy & industry X-Ray · Core #18 Easy

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	देश	किस संसाधन में समृद्ध है
I.	बोत्सवाना	हीरा
II.	चिली	लिथियम
III.	इंडोनेशिया	निकेल

उपर्युक्त में से कितनी पंक्तियों में दी गई जानकारी सही सुमेलित है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. Botswana — Diamond

II. Chile — Lithium

III. Indonesia — Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) सभी तीन

All three rows are correct: Botswana's economy is built on diamonds, Chile holds the largest lithium reserves in Latin America and is a leading lithium producer, and Indonesia has the world's largest nickel reserves.

✓ I Botswana is a diamond economy; the World Bank says its diamond wealth has driven decades of economic and social progress, and diamonds are still dominant in its economy.
✓ II Chile is first in order of size among the three Latin American countries (Chile, Argentina, Brazil) that hold large lithium reserves, and the World Bank puts it second among lithium miners, after Australia.
✓ III Indonesia holds the world's largest nickel reserve and is the world's largest nickel producer; it banned nickel ore exports in 2014 to build domestic processing.

Remember · Botswana: diamonds. Chile: lithium. Indonesia: nickel, the world's largest reserve, used in steel and EV batteries.

Sources

Botswana country page, World Bank Group ↗ “Botswana’s diamond wealth has supported decades of economic and social progress, but the country’s traditional growth model is under increasing pressure.”
Latin America and the Caribbean in a Greening World: Critical Minerals, World Bank (2024) ↗ “Of the 8 countries with the largest lithium reserves, 3 are in LAC (Chile, Argentina, and Brazil in order of magnitude) and account for 47% of the world total.”
Nickel, Steel and Cars: Export Ban and Domestic Value-Added in Indonesia, World Bank Policy Research Working Paper 11249 (2025) ↗ “Indonesia has the world’s largest reserve of nickel, which is a crucial input to produce iron and steel, and a primary ingredient for batteries that are essential for the production of electric vehicles (EVs).”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q80

World: places, rivers & mapping Easy

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	क्षेत्र	देश
I.	मैलोर्का	इटली
II.	नॉर्मंडी	स्पेन
III.	सार्डिनिया	फ्रांस

उपर्युक्त में से कितनी पंक्तियों में दी गई जानकारी सही सुमेलित है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. Mallorca — Italy

II. Normandy — Spain

III. Sardinia — France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) किसी में भी नहीं

None of the rows is correct, because each region is paired with the wrong country. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy to France and Sardinia to Italy.

✗ I Mallorca is the largest of the Balearic Islands and belongs to Spain, not Italy; UNESCO lists its Serra de Tramuntana landscape as a Spanish site.
✗ II Normandy is a region of northern France; NCERT calls it the French province whose duke conquered England in the eleventh century. It is not part of Spain.
✗ III Sardinia is a large Mediterranean island belonging to Italy, not France; UNESCO lists Su Nuraxi di Barumini in Sardinia as an Italian site.

Remember · Mallorca is Spanish, Normandy is French and Sardinia is Italian.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Themes in World History, Ch 4 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Themes in World History, Chapter 4 “Across a narrow channel lay the island of England–Scotland, which in the eleventh century was conquered by a duke from the French province of Normandy.”
Cultural Landscape of the Serra de Tramuntana (Spain), UNESCO World Heritage Centre ↗ “XI National meeting of World Heritage Managers in Palma de Mallorca 18 Oct 2017 - 20 Oct 2017 Spain Date of Inscription: 2011 Criteria: (ii)(iv)(v)”
Su Nuraxi di Barumini (Italy), UNESCO World Heritage Centre ↗ “Italy Date of Inscription: 1997 Criteria: (i)(iii)(iv) Property : 2.3254 ha Buffer zone: 3.9178 ha Dossier: 833 Province of Medio Campidano, Sardinia”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q81

Physics & chemistry in everyday life Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: कुछ दुर्लभ मृदा तत्त्व, सपाट टेलीविजन स्क्रीन और कम्प्यूटर मॉनीटर के निर्माण में प्रयुक्त होते हैं।
कथन II: कुछ दुर्लभ मृदा तत्त्वों में स्फुरदीप्त गुणधर्म होते हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement-II. Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सही हैं तथा कथन II, कथन I की व्याख्या करता है

Both statements are correct. Rare earth compounds such as europium and yttrium oxides act as phosphors, the light-emitting coatings that give colour in television and computer screens, so their luminescent property is exactly why they are used in displays.

✓ Statement-I IREL (India) Limited, a Department of Atomic Energy undertaking, lists television screens, computers and monitor displays among rare-earth uses; europium and yttrium oxides produce the red colour in television screens.
✓ Statement-II Rare earths have luminescent properties, and several (europium, terbium) are used as phosphors. That is why they light up screens, so this statement explains Statement-I.

Remember · Europium and yttrium oxides are rare-earth phosphors: their luminescence gives red (and, with europium, blue) colour in TV and phone screens.

Sources

FAQ on rare earths, IREL (India) Limited (Department of Atomic Energy) ↗ · reference work “Europium and Yttrium (oxides) produce the red colors in television screens and smart phone screens. … The REEs have unique catalytic, metallurgical, nuclear, electrical, magnetic and luminescent properties.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q82

Industry, infrastructure & investment X-Ray · Core #39 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारतीय रेलवे ने 2028 तक ‘भविष्य के लिए तैयार’ रेलवे प्रणाली सृजित करने हेतु एक राष्ट्रीय रेल प्लान (NRP) तैयार किया है।
II.‘कवच (Kavach)’ जर्मनी के सहयोग से विकसित एक स्वचालित ट्रेन सुरक्षा प्रणाली है।
III.‘कवच (Kavach)’ प्रणाली में स्टेशन सेक्शन के ट्रैक पर लगे हुए RFID टैग होते हैं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में कौन-कौन से सही नहीं हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028.

II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I और II

Statements I and II are wrong, so they are the ones that are not correct. The National Rail Plan aims at a 'future ready' system by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach is an indigenously developed system, not one built with Germany. Only Statement III, about RFID tags on the track, is correct.

✗ I Indian Railways' National Rail Plan is titled 'for India – 2030' and targets a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.
✗ II Kavach is described by the Ministry of Railways as an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection system; it was not developed in collaboration with Germany.
✓ III Kavach uses RFID tags laid along the track, including station sections, so the train's exact position can be tracked. This statement is correct, so it is not part of the answer.

Remember · National Rail Plan: future-ready railway system by 2030. Kavach: indigenous Automatic Train Protection system using track-side RFID tags.

Sources

National Rail Plan (NRP) for India – 2030, Ministry of Railways, PIB (11 Feb 2022) ↗ “Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) for India – 2030. The Plan is to create a ‘future ready’ Railway system by 2030.”
Deployment of ‘kavach’ system in railways, Ministry of Railways, PIB (27 Nov 2024) ↗ “Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.”
Kavach: The Shield of Safety, Ministry of Railways, PIB (10 Dec 2024) ↗ “Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags are placed throughout the entire track length to enable the Kavach system to track train positions and detect any potential safety issues along the route.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q83

Space technology Hard

निम्नलिखित अंतरिक्ष मिशनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.एक्सिओम-4
II.स्पाडेक्स
III.गगनयान

उपर्युक्त अंतरिक्ष मिशनों में से कितने सूक्ष्मगुरुत्व (माइक्रोग्रैविटी) विषयक अनुसंधान को प्रोत्साहित और समर्थित करते हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4

II. SpaDeX

III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

UPSC's official answer: (b) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (c)

Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan are counted on any reading: Axiom-4's first ISS experiment examined 'the impact of microgravity and space radiation on edible microalgae', and the Government lists 'Microgravity Experiments' among Gaganyaan's research benefits.
SpaDeX's key objectives are 'precision rendezvous and docking manoeuvres', 'power transfer between docked spacecraft' and 'operating payloads post-undocking': a docking demonstration, not a microgravity mission. Judged by its objectives, UPSC's key counts two, option (b).
But the Government's own SpaDeX release presents microgravity research as part of the mission: 'SpaDEX will also use PSLV's fourth stage, POEM-4, for experiments. The stage will carry 24 payloads from academic institutions and startups. These experiments will utilise the microgravity environment in orbit.' A reader who counts what the mission carried answers (c), all three.

UPSC's key counts Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan, judging SpaDeX by its docking objectives; counting the POEM-4 experiments that the Government's release folds into the mission gives (c). In the exam, judge a mission by its stated objectives, not by what else rode on the rocket.

ISRO's year-end mission: SpaDeX, Department of Space, PIB: POEM-4 microgravity experiments ↗“SpaDEX will also use PSLV's fourth stage, POEM-4, for experiments. The stage will carry 24 payloads from academic institutions and startups. These experiments will utilise the microgravity environment in orbit.”
ISRO's year-end mission: SpaDeX, Department of Space, PIB: key objectives ↗“Key objectives include Performing precision rendezvous and docking manoeuvres, Validating power transfer between docked spacecraft and Operating payloads post-undocking, with a two-year lifespan.”
Shubhanshu Shukla to conduct Food and Nutrition experiments on the ISS, Department of Space, PIB ↗“the first ISS experiment will examine the impact of microgravity and space radiation on edible microalgae—a high-potential, nutrient-rich food source.”

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

UPSC's key counts two missions. Axiom-4 took Indian biology experiments to the International Space Station, and Gaganyaan is listed by the Government among its microgravity-experiment opportunities. SpaDeX is a docking technology demonstration, with rendezvous, docking, power transfer and payload operation as its key objectives, so it is not counted; the microgravity payloads on that launch flew on POEM-4, the PSLV's orbital platform.

✓ I Axiom-4 carried Indian biology experiments to the International Space Station, for example on how microgravity and space radiation affect edible microalgae.
✗ II SpaDeX's key objectives, as the Government describes them, are precision rendezvous and docking, power transfer between the docked craft and payload operation after undocking. The 24 microgravity payloads on the same launch belonged to POEM-4, the PSLV's fourth-stage platform, which is why the key leaves SpaDeX out.
✓ III The Government lists microgravity experiments among the research benefits of the Gaganyaan human-spaceflight programme.

Remember · Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan are tied to microgravity experiments; SpaDeX is a satellite-docking demonstration, and the microgravity payloads on its launch were POEM-4's.

Sources

Shubhanshu Shukla to conduct Food and Nutrition experiments on the ISS, Department of Space, PIB ↗ “the first ISS experiment will examine the impact of microgravity and space radiation on edible microalgae—a high-potential, nutrient-rich food source.”
ISRO's year-end mission: SpaDeX, Department of Space, PIB ↗ “These experiments will utilise the microgravity environment in orbit. SpaDEX will demonstrate docking and undocking capabilities between satellites. … Key objectives include Performing precision rendezvous and docking manoeuvres, Validating power transfer between docked spacecraft and Operating payloads post-undocking, with a two-year lifespan.”
Status of Gaganyaan mission, Parliament question, Department of Space, PIB ↗ “Microgravity Experiments: Conducting experiments in microgravity can lead to breakthroughs in various fields, including materials science, biotechnology, and medicine.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q84

Defence, nuclear & energy technology X-Ray · Core #45 Medium

भारत की रक्षा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

	वायुयान प्रकार	विवरण
I.	डोर्नियर-228	समुद्री गश्ती वायुयान
II.	IL-76	पराध्वनिक युद्धक वायुयान
III.	C-17 ग्लोबमास्टर III	सैन्य परिवहन वायुयान

उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

I. Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft

II. IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft

III. C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) All the three · (d) None

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल दो

Two of the three pairs are correct. The Indian Coast Guard describes the Dornier-228 as a multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft, and the C-17 Globemaster III is a military transport, but the IL-76 is a strategic airlift aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.

✓ I The Dornier-228 bought for the Indian Coast Guard is fitted with maritime patrol radar and an electro-optic infra-red device to strengthen aerial surveillance of maritime areas.
✗ II The IL-76 (Gajraj) is described by the Ministry of Defence as an Indian Air Force strategic airlift aircraft. It is a transporter, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
✓ III The C-17 Globemaster III was inducted into the Indian Air Force in 2013 to strengthen its strategic airlift.

Remember · Dornier-228: maritime patrol (Coast Guard). IL-76: strategic airlifter. C-17 Globemaster III: strategic military transport.

Sources

Two upgraded Dornier aircraft for the Indian Coast Guard, Ministry of Defence, PIB (7 July 2023) ↗ “The aircraft will be fitted with a number of advanced equipment viz., Glass Cockpit, Maritime Patrol Radar, Electro Optic Infra-Red device, Mission Management System etc.”
Indian Air Force airlifts sacred Buddhist relics to Mongolia, Ministry of Defence, PIB ↗ “An Indian Air Force IL-76 strategic airlift aircraft, Gajraj, transported the sacred relics of Arahant Sariputta and Arahant Mahamoggallana”
C-17 Globemaster III inducted into the IAF, Ministry of Defence, PIB (2 September 2013) ↗ “Giving impetus to the long standing strategic airlift of the Indian Air Force, the Defence Minister Shri AK Antony today formally inducted the Boeing C-17 Globemaster III into the IAF”
Air Craft: Fixed Wing (Dornier 228), Indian Coast Guard (Ministry of Defence) ↗ “Dornier 228 is a twin engine turboprop, highly versatile multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft manufactured by M/s HAL for the Indian Coast Guard.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q85

Pollution & waste X-Ray · Core #13 Medium

वायु प्रदूषण कम करने हेतु कृत्रिम वर्षा कराने के तरीके में किनका प्रयोग होता है?

Read this question in English

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide · (b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide · (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate · (d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) सिल्वर आयोडाइड और पोटैशियम आयोडाइड

Artificial rain is made by cloud seeding: seed particles are added to a cloud so that rain can form, and Delhi has trialled it as an emergency measure against pollution episodes. India's IITM names silver iodide as the standard seeding agent for cold clouds, and UPSC's key pairs it with potassium iodide.

✓ (a) Both agents are iodides. IITM's CAIPEEX pages name silver iodide (AgI) as the ice-nucleating agent used in glaciogenic seeding; UPSC's key names potassium iodide as the second agent, which the IITM pages do not mention.
✗ (b) Silver nitrate replaces silver iodide here; the key's answer has both agents as iodides.
✗ (c) Potassium nitrate replaces potassium iodide here; the key's answer has both agents as iodides.
✗ (d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride replace both iodides.

Remember · Cloud seeding uses iodide salts, chiefly silver iodide (with potassium iodide in the key), to trigger rain.

Sources

Press Release: CAIPEEX, Scientific Cloud Seeding Experiment 2018, Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (Ministry of Earth Sciences) ↗ · reference work “A seeder and an instrumented research aircraft are being used to seed clouds and record the changes in clouds, leading to rainfall”
Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (Ministry of Earth Sciences), CAIPEEX cloud seeding FAQ (Misc. Publication 2024) ↗ · reference work “Glacigenic seeding: In a cloud with a temperature below freezing (0oC), typically, silver iodide (AgI) is used as the seeding agent, and the seeding method is called glaciogenic seeding.”
PIB (Ministry of Earth Sciences): Parliament question, Assessment of cloud seeding in Delhi, 5 February 2026 ↗ “At present, the cloud seeding activity is at trial stage with the objective to have one more option to provide relief as an emergency measure during episodic high air-pollution events when conducive cloud cover is present.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q86

Parliament & the Union executive Medium

भारत के राष्ट्रपति की क्षमा प्रदान करने की शक्ति के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.राष्ट्रपति द्वारा इस शक्ति का प्रयोग सीमित न्यायिक पुनर्विलोकन के अधीन लाया जा सकता है।
II.राष्ट्रपति इस शक्ति का प्रयोग केन्द्र सरकार की सलाह के बगैर कर सकता है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

Article 72 gives the President the pardoning power, but Article 74 makes him act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so he cannot use it on his own. The Supreme Court has held that its exercise is open to judicial review, though only in a limited form.

✓ I The Law Commission of India records that, in Epuru Sudhakar (2006), the Supreme Court held the President's power under Article 72 subject to a limited form of judicial review. NCERT likewise notes that courts have brought the powers of the President and Governor within judicial review.
✗ II Article 74(1) says the President shall, in exercising his functions, act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. He may ask the Council to reconsider once, but must then follow the advice given.

Remember · Pardon (Article 72) is exercised on Council of Ministers' advice (Article 74), and is open to limited judicial review.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work, Ch 6 (practise this chapter)

Sources

NCERT Class 11 · Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter 6 “Thus, areas that were considered beyond the scope of judicial review such as powers of the President and Governor were brought under the purview of the courts.”
Report No. 262, The Death Penalty, Law Commission of India (2015), para 6.3.2 (Internet Archive copy of the official PDF) ↗ “the exercise of power under Article 72 by the President and Article 161 by the Governor is subject to limited form of judicial review.”
The Constitution of India (Legislative Department, Government of India), Article 72(1) ↗ “The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence … There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice:”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q87

Parliament & the Union executive X-Ray · Core #2 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.लोक सभा का विघटन होने पर विघटन के पश्चात् होने वाले लोक सभा के पहले अधिवेशन के ठीक पहले तक अध्यक्ष अपने पद को रिक्त नहीं करेगा।
II.भारत के संविधान के उपबंधों के अनुसार, लोक सभा का कोई सदस्य अध्यक्ष के रूप में निर्वाचित होने पर अपने राजनीतिक दल से तुरंत त्यागपत्र दे देगा।
III.लोक सभा के अध्यक्ष को लोक सभा के तत्कालीन समस्त सदस्यों के बहुमत से पारित संकल्प द्वारा अपने पद से हटाया जा सकेगा, किन्तु कोई संकल्प तब तक प्रस्तावित नहीं किया जाएगा जब तक कि उस संकल्प को प्रस्तावित करने के आशय की कम-से-कम चौदह दिन की सूचना न दे दी गई हो।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) केवल I और III

Statements I and III match Article 94: the Speaker stays in office after dissolution until just before the new House first meets, and can be removed only by a majority of all its then members after fourteen days' notice. Statement II is wrong, because the Constitution does not compel a Speaker to leave his party.

✓ I The second proviso to Article 94 says that when the House of the People is dissolved the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.
✗ II No article requires this. Paragraph 5 of the Tenth Schedule only protects a Speaker who, by reason of his election, voluntarily gives up his party membership from disqualification; it does not make resignation compulsory.
✓ III Article 94(c) lets the House remove the Speaker by a resolution backed by a majority of all its then members, and the first proviso bars moving it without at least fourteen days' notice.

Remember · Speaker: stays on after dissolution until the new House meets; removed by a majority of all then members with 14 days' notice; no constitutional duty to quit the party.

Sources

The Constitution of India (Legislative Department, Government of India), Article 94, second proviso ↗ “Provided further that, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. … may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House … no resolution for the purpose of clause (c) shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution … shall not be disqualified under this Schedule,— (a) if he, by reason of his election to such office, voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party to which he belonged immediately before such election”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q88

Parliament & the Union executive X-Ray · Core #2 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यदि कोई प्रश्न उठता है कि लोक सभा का कोई सदस्य 10वीं अनुसूची के अधीन निरर्हता से ग्रस्त हो गया है या नहीं, तब संघ की मंत्रिपरिषद् की राय के अनुसार राष्ट्रपति का निर्णय अंतिम होगा।
II.भारत के संविधान में शब्द ‘राजनीतिक दल’ का कोई उल्लेख नहीं है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) न तो I और न ही II

Both statements are wrong. Under the Tenth Schedule, questions of defection disqualification are decided by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President. And the Constitution does use the words 'political party', in the Tenth Schedule and in Article 361B.

✗ I Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule sends a defection question to the Speaker (or Chairman) of the House, whose decision is final. The President decides only disqualifications under Article 102(1), and then acts on the opinion of the Election Commission, not of the Council of Ministers.
✗ II The Tenth Schedule, added by the Fifty-second Amendment in 1985, is built on 'political party', and Article 361B also uses the words.

Remember · Defection disqualification (Tenth Schedule) is decided by the Presiding Officer; the President decides Article 102(1) cases on the Election Commission's opinion. 'Political party' is in the Constitution.

Sources

The Constitution of India (Legislative Department, Government of India), Tenth Schedule, paragraph 6(1) ↗ “the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and his decision shall be final … Before giving any decision on any such question, the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion. … A member of a House belonging to any political party who is disqualified for being a member of the House under paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q89

Minerals, energy & industry X-Ray · Core #18 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

कथन I: भारत में राज्य सरकारों के पास गौण खनिजों के निष्कर्षण के बारे में रियायत देने के लिए नियम बनाने की कोई शक्ति नहीं है, भले ही ऐसे खनिज उनके अपने भूभाग में अवस्थित हों।
कथन II: भारत में केन्द्र सरकार के पास प्रासंगिक विधि के अधीन गौण खनिजों को अधिसूचित करने की शक्ति है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I. In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement-II. In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) कथन I सही नहीं है किन्तु कथन II सही है

Statement I is wrong. Mines and minerals are a State subject, subject to Union control, and under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 the State Governments frame the rules for concessions in minor minerals. Statement II is right: under the same Act the Central Government can notify further minerals as minor minerals.

✗ Statement-I Section 15(1) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowers the State Government to make rules regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases and other concessions for minor minerals. The Constitution's State List also covers regulation of mines and mineral development, subject to Union control.
✓ Statement-II Section 3(e) of the Act defines minor minerals as building stones, gravel, ordinary clay and ordinary sand (other than sand used for prescribed purposes) and any other mineral the Central Government declares, by notification in the Official Gazette, to be a minor mineral.

Remember · Minor minerals: State Governments make the concession rules; the Central Government notifies what counts as a minor mineral (MMDR Act, 1957).

Sources

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (India Code, Legislative Department), section 15(1) ↗ “15. Power of State Governments to make rules in respect of minor minerals.―(1) The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for, regulating the grant of … “minor minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral;”
The Constitution of India (Legislative Department, Government of India), Seventh Schedule, List II (State List), entry 23 ↗ “Regulation of mines and mineral development subject to the provisions of List I with respect to regulation and development under the control of the Union. … Regulation of mines and mineral development to the extent to which such regulation and development under the control of the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q90

Environmental laws, bodies & conventions X-Ray · Core #37 Easy

किस संस्था ने जलवायु परिवर्तन और जैव विविधता की हानि के नियंत्रण हेतु प्रकृति पुनःस्थापन विधि [नेचर रेस्टोरेशन लॉ (NRL)] अधिनियमित की?

Read this question in English

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union · (b) The World Bank · (c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development · (d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) यूरोपीय संघ

The Nature Restoration Law is a European Union law. The Council of the EU adopted it on 17 June 2024 and it entered into force on 18 August 2024, setting binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems across the EU's land and sea areas.

✓ (a) The European Commission describes the Nature Restoration Law as a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, with binding restoration targets for habitats and species that should cover at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030.
✗ (b) The World Bank Group describes its role as providing financial products and policy advice to countries; it is not the body that enacted this law.
✗ (c) The OECD describes itself as an international organisation that works to build better policies; it did not enact this law.
✗ (d) The FAO describes itself as a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger; it did not enact this law.
• Since then The Commission's page now calls the same law the 'Nature Restoration Regulation'; in 2024 it used 'Nature Restoration Law'. The content and the dates above are unchanged.

Remember · The Nature Restoration Law is a European Union regulation, in force since 18 August 2024, with binding targets to restore ecosystems by 2030 and 2050.

Sources

Nature Restoration Regulation (formerly Nature Restoration Law), European Commission, Directorate-General for Environment ↗ “The Nature Restoration Regulation is the first continent-wide, comprehensive law of its kind. It is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy , which sets binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems … 18 August 2024 Nature Restoration Regulation enters into force 17 June 2024 Council adopts Nature Restoration Regulation”
Who We Are, The World Bank Group ↗ “Provides financial products and policy advice to help middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries reduce poverty and respond to regional and global challenges.”
About the OECD (Who we are) ↗ “is an international organisation that works to build better policies for better lives.”
About FAO: Overview, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations ↗ “is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q91

Panchayati Raj & local government Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर पंचायतें सभी राज्यों में विद्यमान हैं।
II.मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर किसी पंचायत में सदस्य होने हेतु पात्र होने के लिए किसी व्यक्ति को तीस वर्ष की आयु प्राप्त होनी चाहिए।
III.किसी राज्य का मुख्यमंत्री मध्यवर्ती स्तरों पर पंचायतों की वित्तीय दशा के पुनरीक्षण के लिए और राज्य द्वारा उद्ग्रहीत करों और शुल्कों के निवल आगम को मध्यवर्ती स्तर पर राज्य और पंचायतों के बीच वितरित करने हेतु सिफारिशें करने के लिए एक आयोग का गठन करता है।

उपर्युक्त में कौन-कौन से कथन सही नहीं हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) I, II और III

All three statements are wrong, so all three are 'not correct'. A State with a population of twenty lakh or less need not have intermediate-level Panchayats, the minimum age for a Panchayat member is twenty-one, and it is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who constitutes the State Finance Commission.

✗ I Article 243B(1) requires three tiers in every State, but 243B(2) lets a State with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs skip the intermediate level, so it does not exist in all States.
✗ II Article 243F allows a person of twenty-one to be a Panchayat member; a candidate cannot be disqualified merely for being under twenty-five if he has reached twenty-one. Thirty years is not the requirement.
✗ III Under Article 243-I the Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission, every fifth year, to review the Panchayats' finances and recommend how tax proceeds are shared with them. The Chief Minister does not.

Remember · Intermediate tier optional if the State population is up to 20 lakh; minimum age 21; the Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years.

Sources

The Constitution of India (Legislative Department, Government of India), Article 243B(2) ↗ “Notwithstanding anything in clause (1), Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs. … no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age, if he has attained the age of twenty- one years … The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q92

International organisations & groupings X-Ray · Core #53 Medium

BIMSTEC के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.यह जनवरी 2025 तक सात सदस्य देशों से मिलकर बना एक क्षेत्रीय संगठन है।
II.यह ढाका घोषणा, 1999 पर हस्ताक्षर होने के साथ अस्तित्व में आया।
III.बांग्लादेश, भारत, श्रीलंका, थाइलैंड और नेपाल BIMSTEC के संस्थापक सदस्य देश हैं।
IV.BIMSTEC में, ‘पर्यटन’ उप-क्षेत्र का नेतृत्व भारत कर रहा है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II · (b) II and III · (c) I and IV · (d) I only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) केवल I

Only Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has had seven members since Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. It began with the Bangkok Declaration of 1997, not a Dhaka Declaration; Nepal joined only in 2004, so it is not a founder; and the tourism sub-sector is led by Nepal, not India.

✓ I BIMSTEC's own history lists seven Member States: Myanmar joined in December 1997 and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004, so the count was seven in January 2025 too.
✗ II BIMSTEC's own history places its founding on 6 June 1997, with the Bangkok Declaration, not on a Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
✗ III The organisation began as BIST-EC with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand; Nepal joined only in 2004, so it is not a founding member.
✗ IV BIMSTEC's website records Nepal as the Lead Country for the tourism sub-sector, so India does not lead it.

Remember · BIMSTEC: founded by the Bangkok Declaration (6 June 1997) as BIST-EC with four states; seven members since 2004; Nepal leads tourism.

Sources

History, BIMSTEC Secretariat (bimstec.org) ↗ · reference work “was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation) … comprises seven Member States with the admission of Myanmar on 22 December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004”
Tourism sub-sector, BIMSTEC Secretariat (bimstec.org) ↗ · reference work “The Second Meeting of the BIMSTEC Working Group on Tourism was held on 17–18 January 2024 in Kathmandu, hosted by Nepal as the Lead Country.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q93

Persons, awards & miscellany Medium

निम्नलिखित में से किनसे मिलकर ‘गाँधी शांति पुरस्कार’ के प्राप्तकर्ता का चयन करने के लिए जूरी बनती है?

I.भारत का राष्ट्रपति
II.भारत का प्रधानमंत्री
III.भारत का मुख्य न्यायमूर्ति
IV.लोक सभा में प्रतिपक्ष का नेता

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) II and IV only · (b) I, II and III · (c) II, III and IV · (d) I and III only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (c) II, III और IV

The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury has five members: the Prime Minister (chair), the Chief Justice of India, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and two eminent persons. The President of India is not on it.

✗ I The President of India is not named among the members of the Jury.
✓ II The Prime Minister of India is a member and chairs the Jury.
✓ III The Chief Justice of India is a member.
✓ IV The Leader of Opposition recognised as such in the Lok Sabha is a member; if there is no recognised Leader of Opposition, the leader of the single largest opposition party takes the seat.

Remember · Gandhi Peace Prize Jury: Prime Minister (chair), Chief Justice of India, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, plus two eminent persons.

Sources

Code of Procedure, Gandhi Peace Prize, Chapter VI (Selection), clause 2, Ministry of Culture, Government of India ↗ “The Jury shall comprise five members, i.e. the Prime Minister of India, who would chair the Jury; the Chief Justice of India; the Leader of Opposition recognized as such in the Lok Sabha”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q94

Space technology X-Ray · Core #28 Easy

GPS-एडेड जिओ ऑगमेंटेड नेविगेशन (GAGAN) आवश्यक आवर्धन प्रदान करने हेतु भू-स्थित स्टेशनों की प्रणाली का उपयोग करता है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन GAGAN के बारे में सही है/हैं?

I.इसे अतिरिक्त सटीकता और विश्वसनीयता प्रदान करने के लिए अभिकल्पित किया गया है।
II.इससे और अधिक एकरूप और उच्च गुणवत्ता का वायु यातायात प्रबंधन प्राप्त होगा।
III.इसके लाभ केवल विमानन में ही मिलेंगे, किन्तु परिवहन के अन्य प्रकारों में नहीं।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

Read this question in English

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III · (b) II and III only · (c) I only · (d) I and II only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) केवल I और II

GAGAN is India's satellite-based augmentation system, built by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India. It corrects GPS signals and warns pilots when a signal is unfit for navigation, which is what statements I and II describe. Statement III fails because GAGAN was made for civil aviation but is also used in other sectors, including maritime, road and rail.

✓ I GAGAN improves the accuracy of GPS and adds integrity information, that is, an alert when a GPS signal cannot be trusted for navigation.
✓ II Precise, dependable positioning across Indian airspace supports better air traffic management; the Government lists this among GAGAN's continuing aims.
✗ III The benefit is not limited to aviation. Government material lists maritime navigation, road transport, railways, disaster management, surveying and other sectors as users of GAGAN.

Remember · GAGAN (ISRO with AAI) is India's SBAS: it improves GPS accuracy, adds integrity alerts for aviation, helps air traffic management, and also serves maritime, road and rail.

Sources

PIB Explainer: GAGAN, Navigating India's Skies with Precision (1 July 2026) ↗ “It enhances GPS accuracy and provides integrity information for safer aircraft navigation. Certified to international standards, GAGAN supports satellite-based landing and serves sectors beyond aviation. … GAGAN will continue to strengthen India's satellite navigation ecosystem by supporting safer air navigation, improving air traffic management, and expanding satellite-based navigation services across the country. … Although GAGAN was developed primarily for civil aviation, its high-accuracy positioning and navigation capabilities support several other sectors.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q95

IT, computing & emerging technologies Medium

ग्रैंड पैले (Grand Palais), पेरिस में फरवरी 2025 में आयोजित AI ऐक्शन समिट (शिखर सम्मेलन) के बारे में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.भारत की सह-अध्यक्षता में इस शिखर सम्मेलन में 2023 में संपन्न ब्लेचली पार्क शिखर सम्मेलन और 2024 में संपन्न सियोल शिखर सम्मेलन में की गई पहलों को आगे विकसित किया गया।
II.अन्य देशों के साथ-साथ US और UK ने भी समावेशी और सतत AI विषयक घोषणापत्र पर हस्ताक्षर किए।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

The Paris AI Action Summit (10-11 February 2025) was hosted by France and co-chaired by India, and it followed the summits at Bletchley Park (UK) and Seoul (Republic of Korea). It ended with a leaders' statement on inclusive and sustainable AI, but the United States and the United Kingdom are not among its signatories.

✓ I France hosted the summit with India as co-chair. The French Presidency describes it as building on the momentum of the two earlier summits, organised by the UK (Bletchley Park) and the Republic of Korea (Seoul).
✗ II The Statement's official list of signatory countries includes India, China and France, and runs from Ukraine straight to Uruguay: neither the United States nor the United Kingdom appears on it.

Remember · Paris AI Action Summit, 10-11 February 2025: France host, India co-chair, after Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024). The US and UK did not sign its statement.

Sources

Presidency of the French Republic (Élysée): AI Action Summit, presentation ↗ · reference work “by offering to host the AI Action Summit in Paris on 10th and 11th February 2025. India co-chaired this AI Action Summit.”
Élysée: Statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet (11 February 2025) ↗ · reference work “We commend the role of the Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit and Seoul Summits that have been essential in progressing international cooperation on AI safety and we note the voluntary commitments launched there. … Sweden Switzerland Thailand Ukraine Uruguay Zimbabwe African Union Commission European Union”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q96

International organisations & groupings X-Ray · Core #5 Medium

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.अंतर्राष्ट्रीय महिला कृषक वर्ष : 2026
II.अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सतत और समुत्थानशील (रेजिलियेंट) पर्यटन वर्ष : 2027
III.अंतर्राष्ट्रीय शांति और विश्वास वर्ष : 2025
IV.अंतर्राष्ट्रीय क्षुद्रग्रह जागरूकता और ग्रहीय रक्षा (प्लैनेटरी डिफेन्स) वर्ष : 2029

उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कितने सही सुमेलित हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer: 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust: 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one · (b) Only two · (c) Only three · (d) All the four

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (d) सभी चार

The UN General Assembly has proclaimed all four of these observances for the years shown. Each pair matches the year set by the Assembly, so all four are correctly matched.

✓ I The United Nations declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer; the resolution invites FAO to help carry it out together with the other Rome-based UN agencies.
✓ II The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 26 February 2024 declaring 2027 the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, to be facilitated by UN Tourism.
✓ III The General Assembly declared 2025 the International Year of Peace and Trust, calling for conflicts to be resolved through inclusive dialogue and negotiation.
✓ IV 2029 is the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence, timed for the safe flyby of asteroid 99942 Apophis on 13 April 2029.

Remember · UN International Years: 2025 Peace and Trust; 2026 Woman Farmer; 2027 Sustainable and Resilient Tourism; 2029 Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence (Apophis flyby, 13 April 2029).

Sources

FAO: International Year of the Woman Farmer (IYWF) 2026 ↗ “The United Nations declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer (IYWF 2026).”
FAO Mountain Partnership: UN General Assembly declares 2027 the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism ↗ “The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution on 26 February 2024 to declare 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism.”
UNRIC (United Nations): 2025, International Year of Glaciers, Peace, Quantum science and Cooperatives ↗ · reference work “The General Assembly has adopted a resolution to declare 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust”
ESA: ESA endorses Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence ↗ “The European Space Agency (ESA) has endorsed the United Nations' (UN) designation of 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q97

International organisations & groupings X-Ray · Core #12 Medium

BRICS के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.16वाँ BRICS शिखर सम्मेलन रूस की अध्यक्षता में कजान में संपन्न हुआ था।
II.इंडोनेशिया BRICS का पूर्ण सदस्य बन गया है।
III.16वाँ BRICS शिखर सम्मेलन का मुख्य विषय न्यायपूर्ण वैश्विक विकास और सुरक्षा के लिए बहुसंस्कृतिवाद को सशक्त करना था।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II · (b) II and III · (c) I and III · (d) I only

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) I और II

The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan on 22-24 October 2024 under Russia's chairmanship, and Indonesia took up full membership from 1 January 2025. Statement III changes one word of the theme, which was 'Strengthening Multilateralism', not 'Multiculturalism', for Just Global Development and Security.

✓ I Russia chaired BRICS in 2024 and hosted the 16th Summit in Kazan on 22-24 October 2024.
✓ II Indonesia became a full BRICS member with effect from 1 January 2025, a step Russia publicly welcomed.
✗ III The Kazan Summit's theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security'. 'Multiculturalism' is a substituted word.

Remember · 16th BRICS Summit: Kazan, Russia, 22-24 October 2024, theme 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security'. Indonesia became a full member on 1 January 2025.

Sources

President of Russia (kremlin.ru): The 16th BRICS Summit opened in Kazan (22 October 2024) ↗ · reference work “The 16th BRICS Summit is taking place in Kazan on October 22–24 under the Russian Chairmanship themed Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.”
President of Russia (kremlin.ru): Media statements following Russian-Indonesian talks (19 June 2025) ↗ · reference work “Russia played a significant role in facilitating Indonesia’s accession to BRICS as a full member. We welcome Indonesia’s assumption of membership rights effective January 1.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q98

Constitutional, statutory & regulatory bodies X-Ray · Core #9 Medium

लोकपाल के विषय में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.लोकपाल की शक्ति भारत के लोक सेवकों पर प्रयुक्त होती है किन्तु भारत से बाहर पदस्थापित भारतीय लोक सेवकों पर प्रयुक्त नहीं होती।
II.संसद का कोई सदस्य या किसी राज्य या संघ राज्यक्षेत्र के विधान-मंडल का कोई सदस्य इसका अध्यक्ष या सदस्य नहीं होगा और केवल भारत का मुख्य न्यायमूर्ति, चाहे वो पदधारी हो या सेवानिवृत्त, इसका अध्यक्ष होगा।
III.इसका अध्यक्ष या सदस्य, अध्यक्ष या सदस्य के रूप में पद धारण करने की तारीख को पैंतालीस वर्ष से कम वय का व्यक्ति नहीं होगा।
IV.लोकपाल भारत के पदासीन प्रधानमंत्री के विरुद्ध भ्रष्टाचार के अभिकथनों की जाँच नहीं कर सकता।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only · (b) II and III · (c) I and IV · (d) None of the above statements is correct

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल III

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 covers public servants both in and outside India, allows the Chairperson to be a Supreme Court judge or an eminent person as well as a Chief Justice, and does reach the Prime Minister, with safeguards. Only the minimum age of forty-five years in statement III matches the Act.

✗ I Section 1(3) says the Act applies to public servants in and outside India, so Indian public servants posted abroad are covered.
✗ II A sitting MP or State legislator is barred from the post, but the Chairperson need not be a Chief Justice: a Supreme Court judge, present or past, or an eminent person meeting the eligibility conditions also qualifies.
✓ III Section 3(4) bars anyone below forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as Chairperson or Member.
✗ IV Section 14 brings a Prime Minister within the Lokpal's jurisdiction, with limits: matters of international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space are excluded, and a full bench must approve an inquiry by two-thirds.

Remember · Lokpal Act 2013: applies to public servants in and outside India; Chairperson may be a CJI, SC judge or eminent person; minimum age 45; Prime Minister covered, with safeguards.

Sources

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Gazette copy, DoPT, Government of India): section 1 ↗ “It extends to the whole of India. (3) It shall apply to public servants in and outside India. … a Chairperson, who is or has been a Chief Justice of India or is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or an eminent person who fulfils the eligibility specified in clause (b) of sub-section (3) … a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be … any person who is or has been a Prime Minister: Provided that the Lokpal shall not inquire into any matter involved in, or arising from, or connected with, any such allegation of corruption against the Prime Minister”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q99

Persons, awards & miscellany X-Ray · Core #19 Medium

प्रथम खो-खो विश्व कप के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.इस विश्व कप का आयोजन दिल्ली, भारत में हुआ।
II.भारतीय पुरुष फाइनल में नेपाल को 78–40 के स्कोर से हराकर पुरुष वर्ग में विश्व विजेता बने।
III.भारतीय महिलाएँ फाइनल में नेपाल को 54–36 के स्कोर से हराकर महिला वर्ग में विश्व विजेता बनीं।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II and III only · (c) I and III only · (d) I, II and III

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (a) केवल I

The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi in January 2025, and India won both the men's and the women's titles by beating Nepal in each final. Statements II and III swap the two scores.

✓ I The tournament was played in New Delhi, with the finals at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium.
✗ II The Indian men beat Nepal 54-36 in the final. The score of 78-40 belongs to the women's final.
✗ III The Indian women beat Nepal 78-40 in the final. The score of 54-36 belongs to the men's final.

Remember · First Kho Kho World Cup, New Delhi, January 2025: India won both finals against Nepal, men 54-36 and women 78-40.

Sources

DD News (Prasar Bharati): Kho Kho World Cup, India clinches historic double victory in men's and women's titles ↗ “The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup in New Delhi ended on a historic note as India secured both the men’s and women’s titles in thrilling fashion. … the Indian women’s kho kho team claimed the 2025 title at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium on Sunday night, defeating Nepal 78-40. Meanwhile, the men’s team followed suit with a 54-36 victory over Nepal in their final.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2025 · Q100

Persons, awards & miscellany X-Ray · Core #19 Medium

निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

I.2024 में आयोजित 45वें चेस ओलंपियाड के फाइनल में गुकेश दोम्माराजू, रूस के इयान नेपोमनीयाच्ची को हराकर विश्व के सबसे कम आयु के विजेता बने।
II.अमरीकी शतरंज खिलाड़ी अभिमन्यु मिश्रा के पास विश्व का अभी तक का सबसे कम आयु का ग्रैंडमास्टर बनने का रिकार्ड है।

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से सही है/हैं?

Read this question in English

Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only · (b) II only · (c) Both I and II · (d) Neither I nor II

उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English

Answer: (b) केवल II

Gukesh D did become the youngest World Chess Champion in December 2024, but by beating China's Ding Liren in the World Championship match, not in the Chess Olympiad and not against Ian Nepomniachtchi. Abhimanyu Mishra of the USA remains the youngest person ever to earn the Grandmaster title.

✗ I Gukesh's record came in the 2024 World Chess Championship, where he defeated China's Ding Liren at 18. The Olympiad is a team event with no such final, and his opponent was not Nepomniachtchi.
✓ II Abhimanyu Mishra (USA, born 5 February 2009) became a Grandmaster on 30 June 2021 at 12 years, 4 months and 25 days. FIDE, the International Chess Federation, confirms he is the youngest Grandmaster in history.

Remember · Gukesh D, at 18, is the youngest World Chess Champion (beat Ding Liren, December 2024). Youngest Grandmaster ever: Abhimanyu Mishra (USA, 2021, aged 12 years, 4 months, 25 days).

Sources

DD News (Prasar Bharati): Gukesh beats China's Ding Liren to become youngest-ever World Champion in chess history (12 December 2024) ↗ “India’s D. Gukesh etched his name in history by dethroning China’s Ding Liren to claim the 2024 World Chess Championship on Thursday, becoming the sport’s youngest-ever titleholder at 18 years old.”
International Chess Federation (FIDE): Abhimanyu Mishra is the youngest Grandmaster in history, 30 June 2021 ↗ · reference work “is the youngest Grandmaster (GM) in history, breaking the record formerly held by Russian GM Sergey Karjakin … At age 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, Mishra earned his third and final norm”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·