Prelims GS Paper I 2025

Answer: (b) Only two

SEBI defines an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) as a privately pooled fund that collects money from sophisticated investors and invests it under a set policy. Hedge funds and venture capital funds are such pooled funds and are registered as AIFs; bonds and stocks are securities that a fund may buy, not funds themselves.

• ✗ I A bond is a debt security issued by a government or company. It can be held by an AIF, but a bond is not a pooled fund.
• ✓ II SEBI registers hedge funds (along with PIPE funds) as Category III AIFs, which may use complex trading strategies and leverage.
• ✗ III Stocks are shares of ownership in a company, an asset class traded on exchanges, not a privately pooled investment vehicle.
• ✓ IV Venture capital funds, including angel funds, form a sub-category of Category I AIFs under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.

Remember · AIF = privately pooled fund regulated by SEBI (2012 rules). Category I: venture capital, angel, SME, social venture, infrastructure funds; Category III: hedge funds, PIPE funds.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I and II only

The RBI earns mainly on the assets it holds and trades: interest and trading gains on rupee government securities, and interest and exchange gains on its foreign currency assets. Printing notes is shown in its accounts as an expense, and the RBI neither manages pension funds nor lends to private companies.

• ✓ I The RBI holds and trades government securities (for example in open market operations); interest on them and profit on their sale or redemption are part of its income.
• ✓ II Exchange gains from foreign exchange transactions and interest on foreign securities are a large part of the RBI's earnings from foreign sources.
• ✗ III Pension funds are managed by pension fund managers under the PFRDA; no such item appears among the RBI's income heads.
• ✗ IV The RBI is a banker to governments and banks. It lends to banks and governments, not to private companies, so this is not an income source.
• ✗ V The RBI's income statement lists 'Printing of Notes' under expenditure (about ₹5,101 crore in 2023-24), so it is a cost, not income.

Remember · RBI income = interest and gains on rupee and foreign securities plus forex dealings. Printing currency notes is an expenditure for the RBI.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the DRI row is fully right. The Enforcement Directorate does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Home Ministry. Big data analytics to help tax officers is the job of CBIC's Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), not the DG of Systems and Data Management.

• ✗ I The ED enforces PMLA, FEMA and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) lists it as its attached office; it is not under the Home Ministry.
• ✓ II The DRI is the apex anti-smuggling agency of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, enforcing the Customs Act, 1962 under the Department of Revenue.
• ✗ III The data-mining and analytics role described belongs to DGARM, which CBIC created as its apex body for data analytics and risk management in July 2017.

Remember · ED, DRI and CBIC's directorates all sit under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Tax data analytics and risk profiling: DGARM (CBIC, 2017).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) II only

The BRSR is a SEBI requirement, not an RBI one, and it applies to the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation, not all listed companies. Its disclosures cover environmental, social and governance (ESG) performance, so they are largely non-financial.

• ✗ I SEBI's May 2021 circular made BRSR filing mandatory from 2022-23 for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalisation; the RBI has no role, and not every listed company is covered.
• ✓ II The BRSR reports performance on ESG parameters under the nine principles of the National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct, asking firms to look beyond financials.

Remember · BRSR: SEBI, circular of 10 May 2021; mandatory from FY 2022-23 for top 1,000 listed companies; ESG (non-financial) disclosures; replaced the Business Responsibility Report.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Only 'agricultural income', which must come from land used for agriculture, is exempt. Poultry farming or wool rearing does not involve cultivating land, so its income is taxable like business income. Separately, section 2(14) excludes rural agricultural land from 'capital asset', so gains on selling it escape capital gains tax.

• ✗ Statement-I Section 2(1A) ties agricultural income to land in India used for agricultural purposes. Audit has treated even milk sales as dairy income, not income from agricultural land, so allied activities are taxable.
• ✓ Statement-II Section 2(14) excludes agricultural land from 'capital asset', except land within or near municipalities and cantonments of specified population (urban agricultural land).
• • Since then Since 1 April 2026 the Income-tax Act, 2025 has replaced the 1961 Act; PIB says the rewrite does not alter the underlying tax policy (PIB, 1 April 2026).

Remember · Exempt agricultural income must arise from land used for agriculture; poultry, dairy, wool are taxable. Rural agricultural land is not a capital asset, so no capital gains tax on it.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) I and III only

India became the 14th member of the US-led Mineral Security Partnership in June 2023, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 let the Centre alone auction mining leases and composite licences for listed critical minerals. But India is far from self-sufficient: it depends mostly on imports for minerals such as lithium, cobalt and nickel.

• ✓ I The Ministry of Mines told Parliament that India joined the Mineral Security Partnership as its 14th member in June 2023.
• ✗ II India identified 30 critical minerals in June 2023 precisely because supply is a risk; for several of them, including lithium, cobalt and nickel, it relies mostly on imports.
• ✓ III The 2023 amendment empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for critical minerals in Part D of the First Schedule; the States still grant the lease and keep the revenue.

Remember · Critical minerals: 30 identified (June 2023); MSP member since June 2023; MMDR Amendment 2023 lets the Centre auction them while States keep the revenue.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

A bondholder has lent money to the company and is owed a fixed return, while a stockholder owns a share of the company and takes whatever is left. Because lenders must be repaid first, bondholders face less risk than owners; both Statements II and III therefore explain Statement I.

• ✓ Statement-I Bond returns are fixed in advance (coupon and redemption amount), while stock returns depend on profits and share prices, so bonds are generally the lower-risk claim on the same company.
• ✓ Statement-II SEBI explains that an equity investor becomes an owner of the company, while a debt investor becomes a lender to it.
• ✓ Statement-III As a lender, the bondholder has a higher claim on the company's assets than a shareholder if the company goes bankrupt, so bondholders are repaid first.

Remember · Bondholders = lenders (fixed return, paid before shareholders); stockholders = owners (voting rights, residual claim, higher risk).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I and II only

Indian exchanges lead the world in the number of derivative contracts traded, driven by a boom in index options, and India's equity market has grown fast enough to rank among the world's five largest. Statement III is false: SEBI is the statutory regulator, it registers and regulates investment advisers, and it has itself published studies on retail losses in futures and options.

• ✓ I SEBI, citing World Federation of Exchanges data, notes that an Indian exchange ranks first globally by number of contracts traded, far ahead of the next exchange.
• ✓ II The Economic Survey 2023-24 records that the Indian market rose to fifth in the world by market capitalisation in FY24, while Hong Kong was among the few major markets that did not post better returns that year. Business Standard, reporting Bloomberg data, said in January 2024 that India's market capitalisation had overtaken Hong Kong's for the first time.
• ✗ III The SEBI Act sets up SEBI to protect the interests of investors in securities and to regulate the securities market, including registering and regulating investment advisers. Its September 2024 study found that over 9 in 10 (93%) individual F&O traders incurred losses between FY22 and FY24.

Remember · India leads the world in exchange-traded options volume; SEBI's 2024 study: 93% of individual F&O traders lost money (FY22–FY24). SEBI is the regulator and registers investment advisers.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

A circular economy keeps materials in use through reuse, repair and recycling instead of the 'take–make–dispose' model. Using fewer fresh raw materials cuts the energy spent extracting and processing them, and cutting waste cuts the emissions from producing and disposing of it, so both II and III explain the fall in greenhouse gas emissions.

• ✓ Statement-I The European Parliament lists a reduction in total annual greenhouse gas emissions among the benefits of a circular economy.
• ✓ Statement-II Reusing and recycling products slows the use of natural resources, so fewer virgin raw materials are needed; this lowers emissions from mining and processing.
• ✓ Statement-III Better design and efficient production reduce waste and the energy and resources consumed, which also lowers emissions.

Remember · Circular economy = reduce, reuse, repair, recycle. Fewer raw materials and less waste mean less energy use and lower greenhouse gas emissions.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I and II only

A capital receipt either creates a liability (borrowing must be repaid) or reduces the government's assets (selling PSU shares). Interest the government earns on loans it has given is non-tax revenue: it creates no claim on the government, so III is wrong.

• ✓ I NCERT defines capital receipts as all receipts that create a liability or reduce the government's financial assets.
• ✓ II Fresh loans create a liability to repay, and disinvestment (sale of PSU shares) reduces financial assets, so both are capital receipts.
• ✗ III Interest receipts on loans given by the government are non-tax revenue, a revenue receipt that does not lead to any claim on the government.

Remember · Capital receipt = creates liability or reduces assets (borrowings, recovery of loans, disinvestment). Revenue receipt = no claim on government (taxes, interest, dividends, fees).

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Answer: (c) Both I and II

Rammohun Roy combined respect for India's philosophical heritage with Western rationalism. He grounded the Brahmo Samaj in the Upanishads and argued against sati from the ancient texts, while pressing for Western education, reason and equality for women.

• ✓ I He valued the Vedantic tradition: the Brahmo Samaj believed in the Upanishads, and he argued that sati had no sanction in ancient texts rather than rejecting those texts.
• ✓ II He wanted Western education spread in India and sought greater freedom and equality for women, appealing to reason and humanitarian ideas.

Remember · Rammohun Roy (1772–1833): Brahmo Sabha 1828; anti-sati campaign (sati banned 1829); blended Western rationality with respect for Indian (Vedantic) tradition.

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Answer: (c) Only three

The 1920 programme asked Indians to boycott courts, schools, councils and foreign goods, to stay strictly non-violent, and to settle disputes through their own panchayats instead of British courts. Titles and honours were to be surrendered, not kept, so only item III is wrong.

• ✓ I Boycott of courts and foreign goods was central; lawyers gave up practice and foreign cloth was burnt in public bonfires.
• ✓ II Gandhi promised swaraj within a year only if people kept strictly to non-violence, and he called off the movement after the violence at Chauri Chaura in February 1922.
• ✗ III The first stage was the surrender of titles the government had awarded, not their retention.
• ✓ IV Gandhi's non-cooperation appeal asked people to boycott the law courts and to settle their quarrels before panchayats; the Congress resolution likewise called for settlement of disputes by private arbitration.

Remember · Non-Cooperation (1920–22): surrender titles; boycott schools, courts, councils, foreign cloth; panchayats, national schools, khadi; strict non-violence; withdrawn after Chauri Chaura.

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

The answer is the pot-wheel of Indian irrigation: a large wheel carrying a ring of pots that dip into a well, fill, rise and empty into a channel as the wheel turns. NCERT reproduces Babur's description of it, a wheel with pitchers fastened to ropes and wooden strips, turned by a bullock through geared wheels, and calls the same device the Persian wheel (Rehat).

• ✓ (b) Babur describes a wheel-well device with pitchers fastened between two circles of rope, turned by a bullock through toothed wheels, with a trough where the pitchers empty. NCERT's figure calls it a Persian wheel. UPSC's key treats this option as correct; we could not confirm the option's name from an official source, so we do not explain that detail.
• ✗ (a) Babur also describes a different device: a large bucket on a rope passed over a roller at the well-edge and tied to a bullock. NCERT lists the Charas as a separate well-irrigation device, distinct from the Rehat (Persian wheel). Neither is a wheel of pots.
• ✗ (d) A bucket on a rope is the other kind of lift Babur describes; it is not a wheel carrying a ring of pots.

Remember · Wheel with a ring of pots lifting well water = the Persian wheel (Rehat); Babur describes one turned by a bullock through gears. A bucket-and-rope lift (charas type) is a different device.

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

The Mandagapattu inscription mentions the Pallava king Mahendravarman I, who ruled in the seventh century, with numerous titles such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded), one of the three titles the question names. He was also a fine poet who left a satirical Sanskrit play.

• ✓ (a) Mahendravarman I, who ruled in the seventh century and built temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram, is the king the Mandagapattu inscription credits with titles such as Vichitrachitta (curious-minded) and Chitrakarapuli (tiger among artists).
• ✗ (c) Narasimhavarman I, the son of Mahendravarman I, was also known as Mamalla ('wrestler' or 'warrior'); NCERT notes that he defeated Pulakeshin II and went on to capture Badami. That is not the set of titles in the question.
• ✗ (b) Simhavishnu is not the Pallava king whom NCERT links with the Mandagapattu inscription's titles such as Vichitrachitta; that is Mahendravarman I.

Remember · Mahendravarman I (Pallava, 7th century): titles such as Vichitrachitta and Chitrakarapuli at Mandagapattu; poet of a satirical Sanskrit play; rock-cut temples at Mandagapattu. His son Narasimhavarman I = Mamalla.

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Faxian's travels ran from about 399 to 414 CE, and he was in India in the early fifth century. Chandragupta II ruled the Gupta empire from about 375 to 415 CE, so the visit falls squarely in his reign.

• ✓ (b) Chandragupta II (c. 375–415 CE) was on the throne for the whole of Faxian's journey, recorded in his Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms (399–414 CE).
• ✗ (a) Samudragupta ruled about 335–375 CE, a generation before Faxian set out from China.
• ✗ (c) Kumaragupta I succeeded Chandragupta II only around 415 CE, after Faxian had already gone home.

Remember · Faxian (399–414 CE) came under Chandragupta II (c. 375–415 CE); Xuanzang came two centuries later under Harshavardhana (606–647 CE).

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Only the Cholas had a navy able to strike across the Bay of Bengal. Rajendra Chola I, son of Rajaraja I, sent a naval expedition in the 1020s that defeated Srivijaya's forces and took its capital, a punitive raid rather than a lasting occupation.

• ✓ (c) Rajendra I's fleet defeated the Shrivijaya forces and captured their capital; he also took the title Gangaikondachola after campaigns reaching Odisha and Bengal.
• ✗ (a) Amoghavarsha I was a ninth-century Rashtrakuta king of the Deccan, remembered as Nripatunga and a patron of scholars, not for any overseas war.
• ✗ (d) Vishnuvardhana freed the Hoysalas of Karnataka from Chalukya overlordship in the twelfth century and challenged the Cholas on land; he led no naval campaign.

Remember · Rajendra Chola I (c. 1014–1044): naval raid on Srivijaya (Malay Peninsula–Sumatra), title Gangaikondachola, new capital Gangaikondacholapuram.

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only two

Of the sixteen mahajanapadas, Asmaka lay on the Godavari in the Deccan and Kosala around Ayodhya on the Sarayu, so those two pairs are right. Kamboja lay in the north-west beside Gandhara, not on the Vipas (the Beas of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and Avanti, whose capital was Ujjayini in western Madhya Pradesh, is nowhere near the Mahanadi.

• ✓ I Asmaka (Ashmaka) lay in central India close to the Godavari River, as NCERT says.
• ✗ II Kamboja lay in the north-west, beside Gandhara on NCERT's map of the early states. The Vipas is the Sanskrit name of the Beas, a river of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, so the pair is wrong.
• ✗ III Avanti's capital was Ujjayini (NCERT map), the present Ujjain in western Madhya Pradesh on the Malwa Plateau; the Mahanadi rises in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha.
• ✓ IV Kosala was the ancient kingdom whose capital was Ayodhya, which stands on the banks of the Saryu (Sarayu).

Remember · Mahajanapada rivers: Asmaka–Godavari (Deccan); Kosala–Sarayu (Ayodhya); Avanti–Ujjayini (Malwa); Kamboja–north-west, beside Gandhara; Vipas = Beas.

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Lahore

Paluskar opened the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901 and went on to open many schools across India; after his death in 1931 his disciples formed the Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal. NCERT names him, with V.N. Bhatkhande, as a reformer who set up music institutions.

• ✓ (d) The Mandal's own account says Paluskar established the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901, the seed of the later organisation.
• ✗ (b) The first school was in Lahore, not Gwalior; Paluskar opened further schools across India only afterwards.
• ✗ (a) The first school was in Lahore, not Delhi; Paluskar opened further schools across India only afterwards.

Remember · V.D. Paluskar: Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, Lahore, 1901; his disciples formed the Akhil Bharatiya Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Mandal in 1931. V.N. Bhatkhande: the other great reformer of Hindustani music (NCERT).

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Answer: (b) district-level administration

In Rock Edict III Ashoka orders his officers, the Rajjukas and Pradeshikas in Sircar's translation (the Yuktas being the 'officers' of the Girnar text, as his note explains), to go on circuit every five years, which marks them as the officers running the districts. NCERT calls the pradeshikas district governors, and Sircar's glossary says the Rajjukas were probably governors of districts.

• ✓ (b) All three were district-level officers: NCERT calls the pradeshikas district governors with judicial and administrative functions, Sircar's glossary says the Rajjukas were probably governors of districts, and the Yuktas are a class of officers who toured with them.
• ✗ (c) NCERT describes provinces as the level above divisions and districts; the officers named in the edict work at the district level beneath the provinces.
• ✗ (a) Villages were led by a headman called the gramika (NCERT); the three officers worked above the village, at the district level.

Remember · Rock Edict III: Rajjukas, Pradeshikas (and Yuktas, 'officers') to tour every five years for dhamma; district-level officers; villages under the gramika.

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Answer: (c) Both I and II

At the Nagpur session of December 1920, which adopted the Non-Cooperation programme, the Congress adopted a new objective, the attainment of swaraj by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means. Gandhi planned the movement in stages, keeping civil disobedience and refusal to pay taxes in reserve for a later stage if the government turned to repression.

• ✓ I The Nagpur Congress (December 1920) adopted as its object the attainment of swaraj by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means.
• ✓ II The first stage was surrender of titles and boycotts; a full civil disobedience campaign, including non-payment of taxes, was to follow only if the government used repression, and Gandhi promised swaraj within a year.

Remember · Non-Cooperation: Calcutta special session (Sept 1920) → Nagpur (Dec 1920) adopts it and new creed 'swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means'; staged plan; withdrawn after Chauri Chaura (Feb 1922).

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Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only four

Bulgaria (2004), Croatia (2009), North Macedonia (2020) and Sweden (2024) are NATO members. Austria and Serbia are only NATO partners, not Allies, and both stress neutrality.

• ✗ I Austria is not on NATO's list of 32 Allies. The Austrian Foreign Ministry calls Austria a NATO partner, a member of the Partnership for Peace since 1995, and stresses its commitment to neutrality.
• ✓ II Bulgaria joined NATO in 2004, as NATO's member list shows.
• ✓ III Croatia became a member in 2009, as NATO's member list shows.
• ✗ IV Serbia is a Partnership for Peace partner since 2006 but does not seek membership; NATO says it respects Serbia's military neutrality.
• ✓ V Sweden joined NATO in 2024, as NATO's member list shows; NATO then had 32 members.
• ✓ VI North Macedonia joined NATO in 2020, as NATO's member list shows.

Remember · NATO has 32 Allies: Finland 2023 and Sweden 2024 the newest; North Macedonia 2020; Croatia 2009; Bulgaria 2004. Austria and Serbia are partners (Partnership for Peace), not members.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) Only four

The Andes run along South America's western side through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile and Argentina. From the list, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela lie on the chain; Brazil and Paraguay lie wholly to the east.

• ✓ I Bolivia is one of the countries with large portions of the Tropical Andes.
• ✗ II Brazil is not one of the Andean countries; it lies east of the chain, in the Amazon basin and the Brazilian Highlands.
• ✓ III Colombia includes large portions of the Tropical Andes; the northern Andes split into several ranges (cordilleras) there.
• ✓ IV Ecuador includes large portions of the Tropical Andes; its Andean cordilleras carry volcanoes such as Chimborazo and Cotopaxi.
• ✗ V Paraguay is a landlocked lowland country of the Paraná–Paraguay basin and the Gran Chaco, with no Andean ranges.
• ✓ VI The Andes hotspot extends from western Venezuela, where the northernmost Andes (the Venezuelan or Caribbean cordillera) lie.

Remember · Andes countries (7), north to south: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, Argentina. Not Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay or the Guianas.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) None

UPSC's key is none. Tonlé Sap, in Cambodia, lies at about 12.8°N (UNESCO). Lake Tanganyika lies along the borders of Tanzania, the DRC, Burundi and Zambia, and Burundi, one of its shore countries, lies south of the equator. Patos Lagoon is in Rio Grande do Sul, in the extreme south-east of Brazil.

• ✗ I Lake Tanganyika occupies the southern end of the Western Rift Valley, with ports at Bujumbura in Burundi, Kalemie in the DRC, Mpulungu in Zambia, and Ujiji and Kigoma in Tanzania. UPSC's official key treats the equator as not passing through it; we could not confirm its latitude from an official source, so we do not explain it here.
• ✗ II UNESCO gives Tonlé Sap's latitude as 12.8135 (north), in Cambodia.
• ✗ III Patos Lagoon lies in Rio Grande do Sul, in the extreme south-east of Brazil; it is the largest lagoon in Brazil. UPSC's official key treats the equator as not passing through it.

Remember · Tonlé Sap ≈ 12.8°N (Cambodia). Lake Tanganyika: rift lake on the Tanzania, DRC, Burundi and Zambia borders. Patos Lagoon: Rio Grande do Sul, extreme south-east Brazil.

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Answer: (d) I, II and III

UPSC's key treats all three statements as correct. The Spices Board and ICAR-IISR describe India as a leading producer and exporter, many varieties and local cultivars are grown (23 improved varieties in the manual's Table 1 alone, plus local cultivars such as Duggirala, Erode local, Salem, Alleppey and Lakdong), and Telangana, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are among the top producing States, with Karnataka listed among the other important producers.

• ✓ I The Spices Board manual calls India a leading producer and exporter of turmeric. UPSC's official key treats the statement as correct; we could not confirm the rest of the statement from an official source, so we do not explain it here.
• ✓ II The manual's Table 1 lists 23 improved varieties (from ICAR-IISR Kozhikode, TNAU, OUAT, KAU and others), and it names local cultivars such as Duggirala, Tekkurpet, Amalapuram, Erode local, Salem, Alleppey, Moovattupuzha and Lakdong, so more than 30 are grown.
• ✓ III The manual says Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh together give 63.4% of India's turmeric, and lists Odisha, Karnataka, West Bengal, Gujarat, Meghalaya and Assam as other important producers.

Remember · Turmeric: India is a leading producer and exporter; more than 30 varieties and cultivars; Telangana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh lead, with Karnataka and Odisha among other important producers.

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Answer: (c) I, II and III

All three are classic evidences Wegener's supporters used to show the southern continents were once joined: matching ancient rock belts on either side of the South Atlantic, placer gold in Ghana whose source veins lie in Brazil, and the same glacial Gondwana sediments in India and five other southern landmasses.

• ✓ I Rocks about 2,000 million years old on the Brazilian coast match those of western Africa, and the oldest marine deposits along both coasts are only Jurassic, so the ocean between them is young.
• ✓ II Ghana has rich placer gold but no source rock; the gold-bearing veins are in Brazil, so the deposits must have come from the Brazil plateau when the continents touched.
• ✓ III The Gondwana sediments of India, with thick glacial tillite at the base, are matched in Africa, the Falkland Islands, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia.

Remember · Continental drift evidence: jig-saw fit, matching rocks across the Atlantic (Brazil–West Africa), Ghana's placer gold from Brazil, Gondwana tillite in six southern landmasses, fossils like Mesosaurus and Glossopteris.

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Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Dust is indeed more concentrated over subtropical and temperate belts, but the reason is that these regions have more dry winds, not fewer. Dry winds lift fine soil from arid and semi-arid land, while rain in equatorial regions and ice cover near the poles keep dust down, so Statement II gets the cause backwards.

• ✓ Statement-I The atmosphere holds more dust over subtropical and temperate regions than over equatorial and polar regions; the dust mostly stays in the lower layers.
• ✗ Statement-II These regions have plenty of dry winds, which is exactly why they carry more dust; saying they have 'less dry winds' is false.

Remember · Dust concentration is highest in subtropical and temperate regions because of dry winds; dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei for cloud formation.

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Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

In the northern winter, land loses heat fast while the oceans, helped by warm currents such as the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, stay relatively warm. A given temperature is therefore found farther north over the sea and farther south over land, so the isotherms bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over continents; the warmer ocean air is the reason.

• ✓ Statement-I January isotherms swing north over the North Atlantic and south over Europe and especially the Siberian plain.
• ✓ Statement-II Oceans cool slowly and warm currents add heat, so in January the air over them is warmer than over the cold northern landmasses; this contrast is what bends the isotherms, so II explains I.

Remember · January (NH winter): isotherms bend poleward over oceans, equatorward over land; July reverses it. Deviation is sharper in the Northern Hemisphere because it has more land.

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Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Porosity is how much empty space a rock holds; permeability is how easily water passes through it. Chalk is a soft limestone, and limestone is porous and gives up its pore water freely, which explains Statement I. Clay is actually highly porous (USGS puts it at about 50%), but its pores are so tiny that water barely moves, so Statement III ('not at all porous') is wrong.

• ✓ Statement I Chalk is a variety of limestone (Britannica), and USGS shows limestone yielding most of its pore water freely, while groundwater moves very slowly through relatively impermeable materials such as clay and shale.
• ✓ Statement II Chalk, as a limestone, is porous: USGS lists limestone at 20% porosity with 18% specific yield, so it takes up and releases water readily. That is why chalk is permeable, so II explains I.
• ✗ Statement III Clay is not free of pores: USGS lists its porosity at 50%, but only 2% of that drains freely because the pores are tiny. Britannica notes that permeability falls as the average pore size becomes smaller.

Remember · Porosity = pore space; permeability = ease of water flow. Chalk (limestone): porous and permeable. Clay: highly porous but nearly impermeable because its pores are minute.

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Answer: (c) I, II and III

All three describe the natural greenhouse effect. The Earth's surface re-radiates sunlight as infrared heat; gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour absorb much of it, which keeps the global average near 15°C. Remove that blanket and the surface would be about 33°C colder, below freezing.

• ✓ I Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect the average surface temperature would fall by roughly 33°C, from about 15°C to around −18°C, too cold for life.
• ✓ II The heat that the atmosphere absorbs and traps is what holds the planet's average temperature at a life-supporting level.
• ✓ III Carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour absorb the infrared heat re-radiated by the surface and stop it escaping to space.

Remember · Natural greenhouse effect: CO2, CH4, water vapour trap outgoing infrared; keeps Earth ≈ 15°C instead of ≈ −18°C (a 33°C difference).

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Answer: (c) Both I and II

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, run by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying since December 2014, exists to develop and conserve indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds on scientific lines. The Department itself says it matters for the rural poor because more than 80% of low-yielding indigenous animals belong to small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

• ✓ I The Department describes the scheme as crucial for the rural poor, since more than 80% of the low-producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
• ✓ II It was launched in December 2014 to develop and conserve indigenous bovine breeds scientifically, alongside genetic upgradation and higher milk productivity.

Remember · Rashtriya Gokul Mission (Dec 2014, Dept of Animal Husbandry and Dairying): conserve and develop indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds; realigned 2021–22 to 2025–26.

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Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Cement is among the largest single industrial sources of carbon dioxide, about 7% of global emissions according to the International Energy Agency. Both manufacturing facts are true, but only Statement III explains the emissions: heating limestone (calcium carbonate) to make lime releases carbon dioxide directly, on top of the fuel burnt in the kiln. Mixing silica-bearing clay with limestone is simply part of the recipe.

• ✓ Statement I The International Energy Agency puts the cement sector's share of global carbon dioxide emissions at about 7%, which is well above 5%.
• ✓ Statement II Cement needs limestone plus silica and alumina, which come mainly from clay or shale; this is true but does not by itself produce the carbon dioxide.
• ✓ Statement III In the kiln, calcium carbonate breaks down into calcium oxide (lime) and carbon dioxide; this 'process emission' is the main reason cement is so carbon-intensive, so III explains I.

Remember · Cement CO2 is about 7% of global emissions (IEA); most comes from calcination (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2) in clinker making, the rest from kiln fuel.

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Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

India is not among the signatories of the COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health (Dubai, December 2023); the list on the COP28 site goes from Iceland straight to Indonesia. The declaration is a political declaration whose commitments are made 'according to our national circumstances', so Statement II is wrong.

• ✓ Statement I India did not sign: the list of signatories on the COP28 site names 151 signatories, including the European Union, and India is not among them. The declaration was launched on COP28's inaugural Health Day, 3 December 2023.
• ✗ Statement II The declaration is not a mandate: its signatories commit to better integrating health into climate policy and to promoting steps such as assessing health-system emissions and developing action plans and decarbonisation targets, all 'according to our national circumstances'. Signing does not make decarbonising the health sector mandatory.
• ✓ Statement III UPSC's official key treats this as correct; we could not confirm India's stated reason from an official source, so we do not explain it here.

Remember · COP28 (Dubai, 2023) Declaration on Climate and Health: first Health Day at a COP, 151 signatories; India is not on the list. Commitments are 'according to our national circumstances', not mandatory.

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Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are true, but only Statement III explains Statement I. Melting polar ice moves mass from the poles towards the equatorial ocean, and such shifts of mass change Earth's rotation and axis. A solar storm heats the upper atmosphere but does not shift the planet's mass, so it cannot explain a change in rotation or axis.

• ✓ I NASA-funded studies show Earth's spin axis drifts (polar motion) and its rotation slows, as mass is redistributed on and within the planet.
• ✓ II Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do hit Earth's upper atmosphere with charged particles and energy and can heat it. This is a space-weather effect and does not move Earth's mass, so it does not explain Statement I.
• ✓ III Faster melting of ice sheets has shifted mass from the poles towards the equatorial ocean. This redistribution of mass is the cause of the change in rotation and axis, so it explains Statement I.

Remember · Ice melt shifts mass from the poles to the equatorial oceans, changing Earth's spin axis and lengthening the day; solar storms only affect the upper atmosphere.

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Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Article 6 is the Paris Agreement's provision on voluntary cooperation between countries. It covers market approaches (carbon-market rules) and non-market approaches, so II and III are both true. Because it is the Agreement's route for cross-border carbon trading and other cooperation, it features regularly in climate and sustainable-development talks, which is what Statement I says; II and III explain that.

• ✓ Statement I Article 6 deals with international cooperation on carbon markets and non-market approaches, so it is a regular subject in climate and sustainable-development negotiations.
• ✓ Statement II Article 6.2 lays down the principles for voluntary cooperative approaches that transfer mitigation outcomes between countries (sustainable development, environmental integrity, transparency, robust accounting), and 6.4 sets up a mechanism for emission reductions.
• ✓ Statement III Article 6.8 recognises non-market approaches that help countries implement their nationally determined contributions, and 6.9 defines a framework to promote them.

Remember · Article 6 of the Paris Agreement: 6.2 = voluntary cooperative approaches (internationally transferred mitigation outcomes), 6.4 = a mitigation mechanism under COP/CMA authority, 6.8 = non-market approaches.

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Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific at COP28 in Dubai on 4 December 2023. It aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programmes that include nature-based solutions, especially from capital markets and private capital.

• ✓ (a) ADB's own news release calls it 'ADB's Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific' and says ADB launched it at COP28.
• ✗ (b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is a separate regional lender and is not the launcher of this hub, though it too works in the Asia-Pacific.
• ✗ (d) The IBRD (World Bank) did not launch this hub; the initiative belongs to ADB, as its own release says.

Remember · Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific: launched by ADB at COP28 (Dubai, 4 December 2023), aiming to draw at least $2 billion into nature-based solutions.

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Answer: (c) I, II and III

Direct air capture (DAC) pulls CO2 straight out of ambient air. The captured CO2 can be stored underground, which removes it from the atmosphere, or used as a carbon feedstock for products such as food and beverages, chemicals and some plastics, and, combined with hydrogen, for synthetic aviation fuel. All three statements describe real uses.

• ✓ I Capturing CO2 from the air and storing it permanently removes it from the atmosphere; this is carbon removal by sequestration.
• ✓ II Air-captured CO2 can serve as a climate-neutral feedstock for a range of products, from food and beverages to chemicals, and some plastics are among the CO2-based products.
• ✓ III Air-captured CO2 combined with hydrogen is used to make synthetic hydrocarbon fuels, notably for aviation.

Remember · Direct air capture takes CO2 from ambient air: store it (carbon removal) or use it (food and beverages, chemicals, plastics, and synthetic fuels made with hydrogen).

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Answer: (d) II and III

The Gooty (peacock) tarantula, Poecilotheria metallica, is a spider, so it is an arachnid and not a crustacean, and it hunts animal prey rather than being an omnivore. It is a tree-dwelling species restricted to a few forest patches in the Eastern Ghats, so II and III are correct.

• ✗ I Tarantulas belong to the class Arachnida (order Araneae, family Theraphosidae), not to the crustaceans, and Britannica says they feed mainly at night on insects and occasionally on small frogs, toads and mice, so 'omnivorous crustacean' is wrong on both counts.
• ✓ II The species is endemic to India and is Critically Endangered because it is restricted to a small, highly degraded forest area in the Eastern Ghats (between Nandyal and Giddalur, Andhra Pradesh); a later record extended its range to the Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu, but it remains confined to a few forest areas.
• ✓ III Its genus, Poecilotheria, is the only tarantula genus that is specifically arboreal, living in trees in the forests of peninsular India and Sri Lanka.

Remember · Gooty (peacock) tarantula, Poecilotheria metallica: an arboreal spider (arachnid), endemic to a small Eastern Ghats forest area in India; IUCN Critically Endangered.

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Answer: (c) II and III only

India emits about 2 tonnes of CO2 per person, four times the 0.5 t in Statement I. It is the world's third-largest emitter, behind China and the United States, so within Asia-Pacific it is second after China. Power and heat generation is the biggest emitting activity, so II and III are correct.

• ✗ I The IEA puts India's per capita emissions at around 2 tonnes, less than half the world average of 4.6 tonnes, but far above 0.5 t.
• ✓ II India is the third-largest source of global energy-related CO2 (after China and the US). China is the only bigger emitter in Asia-Pacific, which makes India second in the region.
• ✓ III India's own report to the UNFCCC shows energy industries (mainly electricity and heat generation) as the largest contributor within the energy sector, with a 56.53% share of the sector's 2020 emissions.

Remember · India's CO2: about 2 t per person (world about 4.6 t); third-largest emitter globally, second in Asia-Pacific after China; power and heat generation is the largest source.

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Answer: (b) Only three

Cassava (woody shrub), ginger (herb with a pseudostem) and Malabar spinach (climber) are matched correctly. Mint is a herbaceous perennial, not an annual shrub, and papaya is a tree-like herb, not a woody shrub. That makes three correct pairs.

• ✓ I FAO describes cassava as a woody perennial shrub that grows 1 m to 5 m tall.
• ✓ II Ginger is a slender perennial herb; its leafy shoot is a pseudostem formed by the leaf sheaths, not a true stem.
• ✓ III Malabar spinach (Basella) has soft, succulent, branched climbing stems, so it is a herbaceous climber.
• ✗ IV Mint is a herbaceous perennial that spreads by stolons; it is a herb, not a shrub.
• ✗ V FAO calls papaya a fast-growing tree-like herb, so it is not a woody shrub.

Remember · Cassava = woody shrub; ginger = herb with a pseudostem; Malabar spinach = climber; mint = herbaceous perennial; papaya = tree-like herb (not woody).

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Answer: (b) II only

The oceans, through photosynthesis by plankton and some bacteria, generate about half or more of the oxygen on Earth, so rain forests do not out-produce them: NOAA notes that one marine bacterium alone makes more oxygen than all tropical rainforests combined. Water can hold only a small amount of dissolved oxygen compared with air, so surface water never has several times more oxygen than the atmosphere.

• ✗ I Roughly half of Earth's oxygen production comes from the ocean (IUCN says more than half), and NOAA notes that the marine bacterium Prochlorococcus alone produces up to 20% of the biosphere's oxygen, a higher share than all the tropical rainforests combined.
• ✓ II NOAA says roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean, mostly from oceanic plankton: drifting plants, algae and some bacteria that can photosynthesize.
• ✗ III NCERT notes that the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low compared with the amount of oxygen in air, which is why aquatic organisms breathe much faster than land ones. Water is therefore poorer in oxygen than air, not richer.

Remember · The ocean makes about half or more of Earth's oxygen (mostly phytoplankton); water holds far less oxygen than air.

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Answer: (c) All the three

An alternative powertrain vehicle is one driven by something other than a conventional internal combustion engine running on petrol or diesel. Battery-electric cars, hydrogen fuel-cell cars and fuel-cell hybrids that pair a fuel cell with an electric drive all fit, so all three are alternative powertrain vehicles.

• ✓ I A full battery electric vehicle has a battery charged from the grid and always operates in all-electric mode (US DOE Alternative Fuels Data Center); the World Bank lists battery electric vehicles among the alternative technologies countries are adopting.
• ✓ II A hydrogen fuel-cell vehicle is powered by hydrogen and produces no harmful tailpipe pollutants, unlike a conventional internal combustion engine vehicle; the World Bank treats it as another alternative to battery-powered vehicles.
• ✓ III A fuel cell-electric hybrid is built around a fuel cell supplying an electric motor, with a battery storing braking energy (US DOE), so it too replaces the conventional engine and counts as an alternative powertrain.

Remember · Alternative powertrains replace the conventional petrol/diesel engine: battery electric, hydrogen fuel cell and fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles all count.

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Answer: (d) None

UAVs come in different designs with different abilities. Fixed-wing UAVs fly like aeroplanes and need a launcher and a landing device, while hovering and vertical take-off and landing belong to multirotor and hybrid VTOL types. Drones can also run on gasoline or hydrogen fuel cells, not only batteries. So none of the three 'all types' claims is correct.

• ✗ I Fixed-wing UAVs get lift from a rigid wing like an aeroplane and need launch infrastructure and a landing device; vertical landing is a feature of multirotor and VTOL types.
• ✗ II Hovering capability is one of the ways drones differ. Multirotors hover; fixed-wing UAVs, which rely on forward flight for lift, do not.
• ✗ III Battery power is only one option. Gasoline-powered drones give longer flight times, and fuel-cell (hydrogen) UAVs also exist, so not every UAV is battery-only.

Remember · UAV types differ: multirotor and VTOL can hover and land vertically, fixed-wing cannot; power may be battery, gasoline or hydrogen fuel cell.

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Answer: (c) Only three

In a lithium-ion cell the cathode is a metal-oxide material built from lithium with nickel, cobalt (and manganese), as in the common NMC type. Graphite is the anode material, not part of the cathode. So three of the four elements make up cathodes.

• ✓ I Cobalt is one of the metals in the active cathode material.
• ✗ II Graphite forms the anode of the cell, not the cathode.
• ✓ III Lithium is a cathode mineral (the IEA lists lithium, nickel, cobalt and manganese for the cathode).
• ✓ IV Nickel is a main cathode metal; nickel-rich cathodes are a key trend in EV batteries.

Remember · EV battery cathode: lithium with nickel, cobalt (and manganese). Anode: graphite.

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Answer: (c) All the three

All three contain plastic. Cigarette filters are made mainly of cellulose acetate fibres, which are microplastics; many eyeglass lenses are plastic (for example CR-39 and polycarbonate); and tiny plastic particles are shed by car tyres as they wear.

• ✓ I The WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control Secretariat says cigarette filters are mainly composed of microplastics known as cellulose acetate fibres.
• ✓ II Many spectacle lenses are made of plastic: a peer-reviewed study of spectacle lens materials covers CR-39, polycarbonate and Trivex, and calls CR-39 lenses the most basic form of plastic lenses.
• ✓ III IUCN counts particles worn off car tyres among the tiny plastic particles that reach the oceans.

Remember · Cigarette filters (cellulose acetate), eyeglass lenses (CR-39, polycarbonate) and car tyres (which shed microplastics) all contain plastic.

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Answer: (b) Only two

Coal gasification turns coal into syngas, which is then converted into fuels and chemicals. India's Ministry of Coal lists ethanol among these products and describes the Talcher plant converting syngas to ammonia and then urea. Nitroglycerine is made by nitrating glycerine with nitric and sulphuric acids and is not one of the coal-gasification products, so only two of the three qualify.

• ✓ I The Ministry of Coal includes ethanol among the liquid fuels made from syngas and notes that a policy change is under way to include ethanol from the coal gasification route.
• ✗ II Nitroglycerine (glyceryl trinitrate) comes from nitrating glycerine with mixed nitric and sulphuric acids; it is not a syngas product.
• ✓ III At Talcher, coal blended with pet-coke is gasified to syngas, converted into ammonia and then into urea.

Remember · Coal gasification gives syngas, then methanol, ethanol, ammonia and urea (Talcher fertiliser plant). Nitroglycerine comes from glycerine and nitrating acids, not from syngas.

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Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are all high explosives, the kind packed into warheads and other military munitions. None of them is a refrigerant or a fuel; they release energy by detonating, not by burning steadily with oxygen from outside.

• ✓ (b) DRDO's High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune, made CL-20 in the laboratory as a more powerful explosive than HMX, which fills most warheads. LLM-105 is also an explosive, an insensitive one whose performance lies between HMX and TATB.
• ✗ (c) Cruise missiles are propelled by ordinary fuels burnt in an engine. These three compounds sit in the warhead, not in the fuel tank.
• ✗ (a) Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) refrigerants are gases used for cooling; these three are solid explosive compounds, so they have nothing to do with refrigeration.
• ✗ (d) Rocket propellants are designed to burn in a controlled way. These compounds are designed to detonate and are used as explosive fills.

Remember · CL-20 (most powerful of the three), HMX and LLM-105 (an insensitive explosive) are high-energy explosives for warheads, not fuels or refrigerants.

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Answer: (c) I and III only

Statements I and III are correct; Statement II is wrong because Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services. Deep learning is a narrower technique inside machine learning, which itself sits inside artificial intelligence.

• ✓ I Microsoft announced Majorana 1 on 19 February 2025 as a quantum chip built on a new Topological Core architecture, which it expects will lead to quantum computers that can solve industrial-scale problems.
• ✗ II The chip was introduced by Microsoft (announced on 19 February 2025), not by Amazon Web Services.
• ✓ III Machine learning is a subset of AI, and deep learning, which uses neural networks with many layers, is a subset of machine learning.

Remember · Majorana 1 is Microsoft's topological quantum chip (Feb 2025); AI contains machine learning, which contains deep learning.

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Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements are correct. Monoclonal antibodies are identical antibody proteins made in a laboratory, each locking on to one specific antigen, and one of them (m102.4) was kept ready in India to treat Nipah virus patients.

• ✓ I They are antibodies, which are proteins, produced in the laboratory (for example from hybridoma cells), not by the patient's own body.
• ✓ II Each one is designed to bind a single antigen with high precision, and that binding helps the immune system attack the target.
• ✓ III The monoclonal antibody m102.4 was procured by ICMR for Nipah cases, and a facility to administer it was set up in Kerala during the 2019 outbreak.
• • Since then WHO's fact sheet says there is no licensed specific treatment or vaccine for Nipah yet, so such antibodies are used on an emergency or experimental basis.

Remember · Monoclonal antibodies are lab-made, single-target antibody proteins; m102.4 is the one kept ready by ICMR against Nipah virus.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) None

None of the statements is correct, because each one is an absolute claim ("no virus can...") and a single counter-example disproves it. Viruses are abundant in seawater, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and many viruses take over the host cell's gene activity.

• ✗ I Viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the oceans, reaching up to about 10 crore (10^8) particles in every millilitre of seawater.
• ✗ II Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. NCERT describes how a phage attaches to a bacterium and its genetic material enters the bacterial cell.
• ✗ III An infected cell treats the viral genetic material as its own and makes more virus particles, so its gene activity is redirected. Many viruses actively shut off the host's own gene expression to help themselves multiply.

Remember · Viruses live in seawater, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and viruses reprogram host-cell gene activity, so 'no virus can...' statements are false.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Biology, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Biology, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I. A large surface area lets activated carbon hold heavy metals and other pollutants on its surface, and because it can be made cheaply from carbon-rich waste, it becomes an attractive tool for cleaning effluents.

• ✓ II Activated carbon is highly porous, with a very large surface area and strong adsorption capacity. Pollutants stick to that surface (adsorption), which is exactly how it strips heavy metals from wastewater. This explains why it removes pollutants (Statement I).
• ✓ III Farm and other carbon-rich wastes are the usual raw material for activated carbon, and the process is simple and cheap. This low cost explains why it is 'attractive' as a treatment tool (Statement I).
• ✗ (b) This option says only one of II and III explains Statement I. But the ability to adsorb (II) explains the 'good' part and the cheap, waste-based supply (III) explains the 'attractive' part, so both explain it.
• ✗ (d) Both statements are supported by published research on biomass-derived activated carbon, so 'neither is correct' fails.

Remember · Activated carbon = porous, huge surface area, strong adsorbent, cheaply made from carbon-rich waste; hence widely used to clean effluents.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statements I and III are correct; Statement II is wrong. An Ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, so it can amend Central Acts and can be given effect from an earlier date, but it is void if it goes beyond what Parliament may enact, and Parliament cannot make a law that abridges a Fundamental Right.

• ✓ I Article 123(2) gives an Ordinance 'the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament'. The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Second Ordinance, 2016, for example, amended the Enemy Property Act, 1968 and another Central Act.
• ✗ II Article 123(3) makes an Ordinance void if it contains anything Parliament cannot enact. Article 13(3)(a) says 'law' includes an Ordinance, and Article 13(2) bars the State from making any law that takes away or abridges a Fundamental Right.
• ✓ III An Ordinance can carry a retrospective date. The 2016 Enemy Property Second Ordinance, promulgated on 2 April 2016, was itself deemed to have come into force on 7 January 2016.

Remember · Ordinance (Art. 123) = same force as an Act, can amend Acts and be retrospective, but cannot go beyond Parliament's powers or abridge Fundamental Rights (Art. 13).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) All the three

UPSC's key counts all three pairs as correct. Itanagar is named after Ita Fort and Arunachal has two National Parks; Nagaland's statehood rests on the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, which gave the new State its special provisions; and Tripura went from a Part C State to a Union Territory in 1956 and a full State in 1972.

• ✓ I Itanagar takes its name from Ita Fort ('the fort of bricks'). Arunachal's two National Parks are Namdapha (1972) and Mouling (1986).
• ✓ II Nagaland became a State on 1 December 1963. The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962 was passed with the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 to give effect to the 16-point agreement with the Naga People's Convention, inserting Article 371A for the new State; UPSC treats this amendment as the basis on which the State came into being.
• ✓ III Tripura was a Part C State after 1950, became a Union Territory with the reorganisation of States in 1956, and became a full State on 21 January 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Remember · Itanagar = Ita Fort; Nagaland statehood 1963 (Art. 371A via 13th Amendment); Tripura: Part C State, then UT in 1956, then State on 21 January 1972.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the Inter-State Council was set up as per a provision of the Constitution, namely Article 263. Zonal Councils exist under a law of Parliament, the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and the National Security Council is an executive body with no place in the Constitution's text.

• ✓ I Article 263 lets the President establish an inter-State Council by order. The Inter-State Council was set up on that basis by a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990.
• ✗ II The Constitution contains no provision for a National Security Council. It is an apex body headed by the Prime Minister, formed by the Government.
• ✗ III The five Zonal Councils were created under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, so they are statutory, not constitutional, bodies.

Remember · Inter-State Council: constitutional (Art. 263). Zonal Councils: statutory (States Reorganisation Act, 1956). National Security Council: executive body, not in the Constitution.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I only

Statement I is right: Article 163(1) makes the Governor act on the advice of his Ministers except where the Constitution itself requires him to act in his discretion. Statement II is wrong: a State Bill reaches the President only when the Governor reserves it, so the President cannot call it up on his own.

• ✓ I Article 163(1) carves out the matters in which the Governor is required 'by or under this Constitution' to act in his discretion, and Article 163(2) makes his own decision on whether a matter falls there final.
• ✗ II Article 201 deals with a Bill 'reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President'. The route to the President starts with the Governor's reservation; the Constitution gives the President no power to reserve a State Bill himself.

Remember · Governor acts on ministerial advice except where the Constitution requires his discretion (Art 163). A State Bill reaches the President only if the Governor reserves it (Arts 200–201).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) All the three

All three pairs are correct. Article 50 (a Directive Principle) asks the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services, Article 51A(f) makes valuing our composite culture a Fundamental Duty, and Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) bars employing a child below fourteen in a factory.

• ✓ I Article 50 sits in Part IV. As a Directive Principle it guides the State but, under Article 37, cannot be enforced by a court.
• ✓ II Article 51A(f), in Part IVA, lists among citizens' duties 'to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture'.
• ✓ III Article 24, in Part III, says no child below fourteen shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous employment.

Remember · Art 50 (DPSP): separate judiciary from executive. Art 51A(f) (Duty): value composite culture. Art 24 (Fundamental Right): no child under 14 in factories, mines or hazardous work.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Neither statement is correct. Scheduled Areas remain under the State's own administration: the Governor reports on them to the President, and the Union's executive power extends only to giving directions to the State about their administration.

• ✗ I Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule has the Governor report on the administration of the Scheduled Areas 'in that State', and the Union then directs the State. The State keeps its executive power; the Schedule provides a Tribes Advisory Council, not a local body that takes over.
• ✗ II The Union's power under paragraph 3 is to give directions to the State on administering these areas. It is not a power to take over the administration, and the Governor's recommendation does not trigger any takeover.

Remember · Fifth Schedule: State administers Scheduled Areas, Governor reports annually to the President, Union can only direct the State (Para 3). District councils belong to the Sixth Schedule.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) None

None of the pairs is correct. The National Automotive Board works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and the National Centre for Trade Information belongs to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• ✗ I The National Automotive Board is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• ✗ II The Coir Board (Kochi) is listed among the statutory and autonomous bodies of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the Government of India's Allocation of Business Rules, not of Heavy Industries.
• ✗ III The National Centre for Trade Information is listed among the trade-promotion measures on the Ministry of Commerce and Industry's website, where it is described as jointly promoted by ITPO and NIC; it is not an MSME body.

Remember · National Automotive Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries. Coir Board (Kochi, statutory): Ministry of MSME. National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I and II only

The proviso to Article 368(2) lists what needs ratification by at least half the States, and the list includes Article 162 (extent of a State's executive power) and any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) are not in that list, so Parliament's special majority is enough for them.

• ✓ I Clause (c) of the proviso covers 'any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule', so a change to the Union List needs State ratification.
• ✓ II Article 162, which fixes the extent of a State's executive power, is named in clause (a) of the proviso.
• ✗ III Article 158, 'Conditions of Governor's office', is not among the articles or Chapters the proviso lists, so no State ratification is needed.

Remember · Ratification by half the States: Arts 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, 279A; Union and State judiciary chapters; Seventh Schedule Lists; States' representation in Parliament; Article 368 itself.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements follow the Constitution's text. Article 361 shields the Governor from answering to any court for his official acts and bars criminal proceedings during his term, and Article 194(2) protects a State legislator from court proceedings over what he says in the House.

• ✓ I Article 361(1): the Governor is not answerable to any court for exercising and performing the powers and duties of his office.
• ✓ II Article 361(2): no criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted or continued against the Governor in any court during his term of office.
• ✓ III Article 194(2): no member of a State Legislature is liable to any court proceedings for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature or a committee of it.

Remember · Governor: no court answerability for official acts (Art 361(1)) and no criminal proceedings during the term (Art 361(2)). Legislators: no court liability for House speech or votes (Art 194(2)).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only two

Only II and III are regulated. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 covers refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas, and it expressly leaves out the production of crude oil and natural gas.

• ✗ I Producing crude oil is upstream work and is excluded from the Board's remit.
• ✓ II Refining, storage and distribution are named activities under the Act.
• ✓ III Marketing and sale of petroleum products are named activities under the Act.
• ✗ IV The Act excludes the production of natural gas, although transporting, distributing and selling it are regulated.

Remember · PNGRB (Act of 2006) regulates refining, storage, transport, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum and natural gas, but not upstream production of crude oil or natural gas.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, so ₹80,000 crore − ₹60,000 crore = ₹20,000 crore. The fiscal deficit is the government's total borrowing requirement, here ₹10,000 crore, and the primary deficit, which is that figure without the ₹6,000 crore of interest, is ₹4,000 crore.

• ✓ I Spending on the revenue account (₹80,000 crore) overshoots what the government earns on that account (₹60,000 crore) by ₹20,000 crore, and that gap is the revenue deficit.
• ✓ II The fiscal deficit shows how much the government must borrow. The Budget shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crore, so the fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crore.
• ✓ III Take the ₹10,000 crore fiscal deficit and leave out the ₹6,000 crore that goes to interest; what remains, ₹4,000 crore, is the primary deficit.

Remember · Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts. Fiscal deficit = borrowing requirement. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − interest payments.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

The INSTC is a multi-modal route from the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf through Iran to the Caspian Sea and on to Russia and northern Europe, and it is also meant to link India with Central Asia. So 'India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran' fits, while none of the other options runs through Iran.

• ✓ (a) Iran is the core of the corridor. The government describes it as a route via Iran to the Caspian Sea and onward to Russia and northern Europe, and as a way to connect India to Russia and Central Asian countries.
• ✗ (b) The corridor goes through Iran, not China.
• ✗ (c) The corridor runs west from India through Iran; a route to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar is a different, eastern link.
• ✗ (d) Leaving out Iran misses the corridor's essential link, and this option also leaves out Central Asia.

Remember · INSTC: multi-modal India–Iran–Caspian–Russia–Europe corridor that also links India to Central Asia; Chabahar port in Iran is its Indian gateway.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is wrong because the United States, not Brazil, is the world's largest ethanol producer. Statement II is correct: corn is the main feedstock in the United States and sugarcane in Brazil.

• ✗ Statement-I The United States produced over 16 billion gallons of ethanol in 2024; the same data table puts Brazil at roughly 9 billion gallons, so Brazil is second.
• ✓ Statement-II Most US ethanol is made from corn, while Brazil mainly uses sugarcane.

Remember · The US is the top ethanol producer (mostly from corn); Brazil is second (mainly from sugarcane). Together they make about 80 per cent of the world's ethanol.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) Both I and II

UPSC's key accepts both statements. Statement II is the direct implication: wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity, and as it nears the body's core temperature sweat can no longer evaporate fast enough to shed heat, so survival itself is threatened. Statement I is counted as the wider implication: the key reads the warning as a sign of a climate system under stress over India, whose other faces are flooding, tropical cyclones and drought.

• ✓ I UPSC's key counts this as an implication. The report's warning of routine 35 °C wet-bulb readings signals a warmer, moister atmosphere over India; the key reads the hazards that go with such warming — heavier rain and flooding, stronger cyclones on the peninsula's coasts, longer dry spells — as part of what the warning implies.
• ✓ II Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. Near the body's core temperature, sweat cannot evaporate enough to cool the body (NASA), and the World Bank treats 35 °C as that survivability threshold.

Remember · Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. Near 35 °C sweat cannot cool the body, so survival is at risk; the World Bank flagged India as an early case.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) ₹ 48,500 crores

Gross primary deficit = gross fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities = ₹50,000 crore − ₹1,500 crore = ₹48,500 crore. The ₹10,000 crore of non-debt capital receipts is already counted while working out the fiscal deficit, so it is not adjusted again.

• ✓ (a) 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore, using the primary deficit formula.
• ✗ (b) ₹51,500 crore adds the interest liabilities instead of subtracting them.
• ✗ (c) ₹58,500 crore wrongly brings in the ₹10,000 crore of non-debt receipts, which are already reflected in the fiscal deficit.
• ✗ (d) The correct figure, ₹48,500 crore, is option (a).

Remember · Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities. Non-debt capital receipts are already netted out inside the fiscal deficit.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Statements I, III and IV match the Fifteenth Finance Commission's report. Statement II is wrong: the Commission kept the States' share at 41 per cent of the divisible pool, not 45 per cent.

• ✓ I It recommended ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore a year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivise States to improve educational outcomes.
• ✗ II Vertical devolution was kept at 41 per cent of the divisible pool: the Fourteenth Commission's 42 per cent, adjusted by about 1 per cent for the change in the status of Jammu and Kashmir.
• ✓ III ₹45,000 crore was set aside as a performance-based incentive for States carrying out agricultural reforms, such as amending land-related laws on the lines of NITI Aayog's model law.
• ✓ IV The Commission re-introduced the tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.

Remember · 15th Finance Commission (2021–26): States' share 41% of divisible pool; ₹4,800 crore education incentive; ₹45,000 crore agri-reform incentive; tax-effort criterion re-introduced.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) I and III only

I and III are correct. The IBRD lends and gives guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries, and it was created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after the Second World War. II is wrong because the IBRD does not work alone: it joins with the IDA to form the World Bank and works with the wider World Bank Group and with public and private partners.

• ✓ I The World Bank describes the IBRD as providing loans, guarantees, risk management products and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
• ✗ II The IBRD joins with the IDA to form the World Bank, and it works closely with all institutions of the World Bank Group and with public and private sectors, so it does not work single-handedly.
• ✓ III Created in 1944 to help Europe rebuild after the Second World War; NCERT says it was set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

Remember · IBRD (1944, Bretton Woods): lends to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries; with IDA forms the World Bank; set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 10 India and the Contemporary World – II, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I only

Only statement I is correct. RTGS settles each payment individually and continuously, whereas NEFT settles in half-hourly batches. Inward RTGS transactions carry no customer charge, and both systems run 24x7x365, so statements II and III fail.

• ✓ I RTGS processes payments continuously, one transaction at a time; NEFT collects payments and settles them in batches, now at half-hourly intervals.
• ✗ II RBI's framework for RTGS says inward transactions are free, with no charge to be levied on the customer.
• ✗ III RTGS has been available 24x7x365 since 14 December 2020, and NEFT also runs round the clock on all days, so neither has day-wise restrictions.

Remember · RTGS: continuous, gross settlement, 24x7x365 since 14 Dec 2020, inward transactions free. NEFT: half-hourly batches, also 24x7x365.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only three

Of the five, UPI payments work in the United Arab Emirates, France and Singapore, so three is the count. Germany and Bangladesh are not among the countries where the Government lists UPI as live.

• ✓ I The UAE is among the countries where UPI is live.
• ✓ II France is among the countries where UPI is live.
• ✗ III Germany is not among the countries the Government names as having UPI live.
• ✓ IV Singapore is among the countries where UPI is live.
• ✗ V Bangladesh is not among the countries the Government names as having UPI live.
• • Since then The list has grown since the exam. The Ministry of Electronics and IT told the Rajya Sabha on 6 February 2026 that UPI is live in over eight countries, including the UAE, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius and Qatar; Germany and Bangladesh are still not named (PIB, 6 Feb 2026).

Remember · UPI abroad, exam-year answer: UAE, France and Singapore yes; Germany and Bangladesh no. Other live countries include Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and Qatar.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements match the Ministry's own guidelines for the scheme. The programme aims at one crore residential rooftop solar installations, MNRE plans grass-root training in installing, operating, maintaining and repairing rooftop systems, and the capacity-building component targets more than 3 lakh skilled workers.

• ✓ I The first key objective of the programme is to achieve 1 crore rooftop solar system installations in the residential sector.
• ✓ II The Capacity Building guidelines say MNRE intends to train technicians, electricians, installers and others in installation, operation, maintenance and repair of rooftop solar systems at grass-root level.
• ✓ III The capacity-building component aims to create more than 3 lakh skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling, of whom at least 1 lakh are to be solar PV technicians.

Remember · PM Surya Ghar (approved 29 Feb 2024): one crore rooftop solar installations in homes; capacity building targets 3 lakh+ skilled workers, at least 1 lakh solar PV technicians.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

Gandhi said this in his speech at Borsad on 18 March 1930, during the Salt March that ended with the breaking of the salt law at Dandi. He called sedition his dharma and said he was beginning his peaceful war against the Government by violating the salt law.

• ✗ (a) The remark belongs to the 1930 Salt March, not to the Champaran Satyagraha.
• ✓ (b) In the Borsad speech he said he was 'commencing' his war on the Government 'by violating the salt law'. NCERT records that the march set out on 12 March 1930 and that at its end he made a fistful of salt, breaking the law.
• ✗ (c) The Second Round Table Conference in London came after the 1930 civil disobedience campaign; the speech was made on the march itself.
• ✗ (d) The Quit India Movement was launched years later, in 1942; it is unconnected with this speech.

Remember · Gandhi's 'sedition my dharma' remark: Borsad speech, 18 March 1930, during the Salt March, when he said he was starting his peaceful war by violating the salt law.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Themes in Indian History, Part III, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) bronze

The 'Dancing Girl' of Mohenjo-daro is a small bronze statue. NCERT calls it the best example of a human figure in bronze from the Indus Valley, and says Harappan bronze statues were made by the lost-wax method.

• ✗ (a) Carnelian was a bead stone: NCERT lists it among the materials of Harappan beads, not of statues.
• ✗ (b) Clay (terracotta or burnt clay) was a common Harappan material, but the Dancing Girl is a cast metal figure.
• ✓ (c) NCERT names the statue of a girl popularly titled 'Dancing Girl' as the best example of a human figure in bronze.
• ✗ (d) Gold appears in Harappan necklaces, earrings and beads, but the Dancing Girl is a bronze casting.

Remember · Dancing Girl (Mohenjo-daro): a small bronze statue of a girl, cast by the lost-wax method; the best-known Harappan human figure in bronze.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 An Introduction to Indian Art, Part I, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Madan Mohan Malaviya took up the defence of the men whom the Gorakhpur Sessions Court sentenced to death over the Chauri Chaura violence, and argued their case for four days. UPSC's option pairs him with Krishna Kant.

• ✗ (a) That account of the Chauri Chaura defence does not mention C. R. Das; it credits Malaviya.
• ✓ (b) PIB, describing the Collected Works of Malaviya, records his return to the Allahabad High Court to secure justice for the accused in the Chauri-Chaura incident. Banaras Hindu University's account adds that he decided to appear for those sentenced to death and argued the case for four days.
• ✗ (c) Kitchlew and Nizami are not named in that account of the defence.
• ✗ (d) M. A. Jinnah is not named in that account of the defence.

Remember · Chauri Chaura (1922): after 170 death sentences at Gorakhpur, Madan Mohan Malaviya appeared for the accused and argued the case for four days.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact

Gandhi's fast in Yeravada Jail in September 1932 ended with the Poona Pact, which replaced separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with reserved seats. While he was still in prison, the Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded and the weekly Harijan started, and after his release he devoted himself almost wholly to the campaign against untouchability.

• ✓ (a) The Poona Pact settled the 1932 dispute over separate electorates for the Depressed Classes; the anti-untouchability organisation and the paper Harijan were started while Gandhi was still in prison, and the campaign then became the centre of his work.
• ✗ (b) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in March 1931 and concerned calling off Civil Disobedience, releasing prisoners and salt manufacture along the coast. It came before the 1932 fast.
• ✗ (d) The Government of India Act, 1935 came about three years after the Poona Pact. NCERT narrates the campaign just after the 1935 reform, which can mislead, but the campaign followed the 1932 Pact.
• ✗ (c) The Quit India arrests of 1942 came about ten years after Gandhi had made the upliftment of the Harijans part of his programme.

Remember · The Poona Pact (September 1932) ended Gandhi's fast; the Harijan Sevak Sangh and the weekly Harijan followed, and Gandhi then took up the anti-untouchability campaign.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 8 Exploring Society: India and Beyond (Part 2), Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

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Answer: (c) All the three

All three fruits are New World plants that reached India through Portuguese contact: pineapple in the sixteenth century, papaya through Portuguese (and Spanish) sailors carrying seeds to India, and guava in the seventeenth century.

• ✓ I Papaya spread from Central America; an FAO history says Spanish and Portuguese sailors took its seeds to India in the century after 1500.
• ✓ II The National Horticulture Board records that pineapple cultivation was introduced to India by the Portuguese in 1548.
• ✓ III Guava is native to tropical America; an ICAR journal states it was introduced in India by the Portuguese during the seventeenth century.

Remember · Pineapple (1548), papaya and guava are all New World fruits that the Portuguese brought to India in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only four

Counted with overseas territories and associated states, as the usual tally does, four of the five countries have more than four time zones: the United Kingdom (its Overseas Territories span nine zones), Australia (three mainland zones plus Norfolk, Christmas and Cocos Islands at the least), New Zealand (mainland, the Chatham Islands, Tokelau, and the associated Cook Islands and Niue) and Denmark (mainland, the Faroe Islands and Greenland's three zones). Brazil's legal time uses exactly four zones, UTC-5 to UTC-2, so it does not exceed four: (b).

• ✓ I The House of Commons Foreign Affairs Committee notes that the British Overseas Territories are spread across nine time zones, so the United Kingdom exceeds four zones once its territories are counted.
• ✓ II Denmark's count is mainland Denmark (UTC+1), the Faroe Islands (Greenwich Mean Time in winter) and Greenland, which is divided into three time zones (UTC-4 at Pituffik, UTC-2 for most of the island, UTC+0 at Danmarkshavn): five zones by the usual tally.
• ✓ III New Zealand's count is New Zealand Standard Time (UTC+12), Chatham Island Standard Time, 45 minutes ahead of it, the territory of Tokelau (UTC+13) and the associated states of the Cook Islands (UTC-10) and Niue (UTC-11): five by the usual tally.
• ✓ IV The Australian Government's own table lists three mainland zones plus Norfolk Island (UTC+11), Christmas Island (UTC+7) and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands (UTC+6:30), six in all.
• ✗ V Brazil's official legal time uses exactly four zones, UTC-5, UTC-4, UTC-3 and UTC-2, so it does not have more than four.

Remember · Count time zones with overseas territories: UK (nine), Australia (at least six), New Zealand (five) and Denmark (five) exceed four; Brazil has exactly four (UTC-5 to UTC-2).

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I only

Siberia lies just west of the International Date Line and Alaska just east of it, so Anadyr and Nome are on different calendar days. Going eastward across the line you subtract a day, so Monday in Anadyr is Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.

• ✓ I The two cities lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (about 180° longitude), so at the same moment their calendar dates differ; morning in Anadyr is still the previous day in Nome.
• ✗ II Moving from Siberia to Alaska is a crossing towards the east, where you subtract a day (Monday becomes Sunday). Nome is therefore a day behind Anadyr, never a day ahead.

Remember · Crossing the International Date Line travelling eastward, subtract a day; travelling westward, add a day.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 6 Exploring Society: India and Beyond, Ch 1 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

The Self-Respect Movement was started in 1925 by E. V. Ramasami Naicker, known as Periyar, a former Congress worker who fought caste hierarchy and Brahmin dominance in Tamil Nadu and later founded the Dravidar Kazhagam.

• ✓ (a) NCERT records that Periyar started the self-respect movement in 1925 after leaving the Congress, and later founded the Dravidar Kazhagam.
• ✗ (b) Dr B. R. Ambedkar is linked with the struggle of the Depressed Classes for political safeguards such as separate electorates (NCERT), not with founding the Self-Respect Movement.
• ✗ (c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav is not credited with founding the Self-Respect Movement.
• ✗ (d) Dinkarrao Javalkar is not credited with founding the Self-Respect Movement.

Remember · Periyar (E. V. Ramasami Naicker) started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925; his later organisation was the Dravidar Kazhagam.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Politics in India since Independence, Ch 7 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) All the three

All three rows are correct: Botswana's economy is built on diamonds, Chile holds the largest lithium reserves in Latin America and is a leading lithium producer, and Indonesia has the world's largest nickel reserves.

• ✓ I Botswana is a diamond economy; the World Bank says its diamond wealth has driven decades of economic and social progress, and diamonds are still dominant in its economy.
• ✓ II Chile is first in order of size among the three Latin American countries (Chile, Argentina, Brazil) that hold large lithium reserves, and the World Bank puts it second among lithium miners, after Australia.
• ✓ III Indonesia holds the world's largest nickel reserve and is the world's largest nickel producer; it banned nickel ore exports in 2014 to build domestic processing.

Remember · Botswana: diamonds. Chile: lithium. Indonesia: nickel, the world's largest reserve, used in steel and EV batteries.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) None

None of the rows is correct, because each region is paired with the wrong country. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy to France and Sardinia to Italy.

• ✗ I Mallorca is the largest of the Balearic Islands and belongs to Spain, not Italy; UNESCO lists its Serra de Tramuntana landscape as a Spanish site.
• ✗ II Normandy is a region of northern France; NCERT calls it the French province whose duke conquered England in the eleventh century. It is not part of Spain.
• ✗ III Sardinia is a large Mediterranean island belonging to Italy, not France; UNESCO lists Su Nuraxi di Barumini in Sardinia as an Italian site.

Remember · Mallorca is Spanish, Normandy is French and Sardinia is Italian.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Themes in World History, Ch 4 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both statements are correct. Rare earth compounds such as europium and yttrium oxides act as phosphors, the light-emitting coatings that give colour in television and computer screens, so their luminescent property is exactly why they are used in displays.

• ✓ Statement-I IREL (India) Limited, a Department of Atomic Energy undertaking, lists television screens, computers and monitor displays among rare-earth uses; europium and yttrium oxides produce the red colour in television screens.
• ✓ Statement-II Rare earths have luminescent properties, and several (europium, terbium) are used as phosphors. That is why they light up screens, so this statement explains Statement-I.

Remember · Europium and yttrium oxides are rare-earth phosphors: their luminescence gives red (and, with europium, blue) colour in TV and phone screens.

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Answer: (a) I and II only

Statements I and II are wrong, so they are the ones that are not correct. The National Rail Plan aims at a 'future ready' system by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach is an indigenously developed system, not one built with Germany. Only Statement III, about RFID tags on the track, is correct.

• ✗ I Indian Railways' National Rail Plan is titled 'for India – 2030' and targets a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.
• ✗ II Kavach is described by the Ministry of Railways as an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection system; it was not developed in collaboration with Germany.
• ✓ III Kavach uses RFID tags laid along the track, including station sections, so the train's exact position can be tracked. This statement is correct, so it is not part of the answer.

Remember · National Rail Plan: future-ready railway system by 2030. Kavach: indigenous Automatic Train Protection system using track-side RFID tags.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) Only two

UPSC's key counts two missions. Axiom-4 took Indian biology experiments to the International Space Station, and Gaganyaan is listed by the Government among its microgravity-experiment opportunities. SpaDeX is a docking technology demonstration, with rendezvous, docking, power transfer and payload operation as its key objectives, so it is not counted; the microgravity payloads on that launch flew on POEM-4, the PSLV's orbital platform.

• ✓ I Axiom-4 carried Indian biology experiments to the International Space Station, for example on how microgravity and space radiation affect edible microalgae.
• ✗ II SpaDeX's key objectives, as the Government describes them, are precision rendezvous and docking, power transfer between the docked craft and payload operation after undocking. The 24 microgravity payloads on the same launch belonged to POEM-4, the PSLV's fourth-stage platform, which is why the key leaves SpaDeX out.
• ✓ III The Government lists microgravity experiments among the research benefits of the Gaganyaan human-spaceflight programme.

Remember · Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan are tied to microgravity experiments; SpaDeX is a satellite-docking demonstration, and the microgravity payloads on its launch were POEM-4's.

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Answer: (b) Only two

Two of the three pairs are correct. The Indian Coast Guard describes the Dornier-228 as a multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft, and the C-17 Globemaster III is a military transport, but the IL-76 is a strategic airlift aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.

• ✓ I The Dornier-228 bought for the Indian Coast Guard is fitted with maritime patrol radar and an electro-optic infra-red device to strengthen aerial surveillance of maritime areas.
• ✗ II The IL-76 (Gajraj) is described by the Ministry of Defence as an Indian Air Force strategic airlift aircraft. It is a transporter, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
• ✓ III The C-17 Globemaster III was inducted into the Indian Air Force in 2013 to strengthen its strategic airlift.

Remember · Dornier-228: maritime patrol (Coast Guard). IL-76: strategic airlifter. C-17 Globemaster III: strategic military transport.

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Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

Artificial rain is made by cloud seeding: seed particles are added to a cloud so that rain can form, and Delhi has trialled it as an emergency measure against pollution episodes. India's IITM names silver iodide as the standard seeding agent for cold clouds, and UPSC's key pairs it with potassium iodide.

• ✓ (a) Both agents are iodides. IITM's CAIPEEX pages name silver iodide (AgI) as the ice-nucleating agent used in glaciogenic seeding; UPSC's key names potassium iodide as the second agent, which the IITM pages do not mention.
• ✗ (b) Silver nitrate replaces silver iodide here; the key's answer has both agents as iodides.
• ✗ (c) Potassium nitrate replaces potassium iodide here; the key's answer has both agents as iodides.
• ✗ (d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride replace both iodides.

Remember · Cloud seeding uses iodide salts, chiefly silver iodide (with potassium iodide in the key), to trigger rain.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I only

Article 72 gives the President the pardoning power, but Article 74 makes him act on the advice of the Council of Ministers, so he cannot use it on his own. The Supreme Court has held that its exercise is open to judicial review, though only in a limited form.

• ✓ I The Law Commission of India records that, in Epuru Sudhakar (2006), the Supreme Court held the President's power under Article 72 subject to a limited form of judicial review. NCERT likewise notes that courts have brought the powers of the President and Governor within judicial review.
• ✗ II Article 74(1) says the President shall, in exercising his functions, act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. He may ask the Council to reconsider once, but must then follow the advice given.

Remember · Pardon (Article 72) is exercised on Council of Ministers' advice (Article 74), and is open to limited judicial review.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work, Ch 6 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) I and III only

Statements I and III match Article 94: the Speaker stays in office after dissolution until just before the new House first meets, and can be removed only by a majority of all its then members after fourteen days' notice. Statement II is wrong, because the Constitution does not compel a Speaker to leave his party.

• ✓ I The second proviso to Article 94 says that when the House of the People is dissolved the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.
• ✗ II No article requires this. Paragraph 5 of the Tenth Schedule only protects a Speaker who, by reason of his election, voluntarily gives up his party membership from disqualification; it does not make resignation compulsory.
• ✓ III Article 94(c) lets the House remove the Speaker by a resolution backed by a majority of all its then members, and the first proviso bars moving it without at least fourteen days' notice.

Remember · Speaker: stays on after dissolution until the new House meets; removed by a majority of all then members with 14 days' notice; no constitutional duty to quit the party.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Both statements are wrong. Under the Tenth Schedule, questions of defection disqualification are decided by the Speaker or Chairman, not the President. And the Constitution does use the words 'political party', in the Tenth Schedule and in Article 361B.

• ✗ I Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule sends a defection question to the Speaker (or Chairman) of the House, whose decision is final. The President decides only disqualifications under Article 102(1), and then acts on the opinion of the Election Commission, not of the Council of Ministers.
• ✗ II The Tenth Schedule, added by the Fifty-second Amendment in 1985, is built on 'political party', and Article 361B also uses the words.

Remember · Defection disqualification (Tenth Schedule) is decided by the Presiding Officer; the President decides Article 102(1) cases on the Election Commission's opinion. 'Political party' is in the Constitution.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I is wrong. Mines and minerals are a State subject, subject to Union control, and under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 the State Governments frame the rules for concessions in minor minerals. Statement II is right: under the same Act the Central Government can notify further minerals as minor minerals.

• ✗ Statement-I Section 15(1) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowers the State Government to make rules regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases and other concessions for minor minerals. The Constitution's State List also covers regulation of mines and mineral development, subject to Union control.
• ✓ Statement-II Section 3(e) of the Act defines minor minerals as building stones, gravel, ordinary clay and ordinary sand (other than sand used for prescribed purposes) and any other mineral the Central Government declares, by notification in the Official Gazette, to be a minor mineral.

Remember · Minor minerals: State Governments make the concession rules; the Central Government notifies what counts as a minor mineral (MMDR Act, 1957).

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Answer: (a) The European Union

The Nature Restoration Law is a European Union law. The Council of the EU adopted it on 17 June 2024 and it entered into force on 18 August 2024, setting binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems across the EU's land and sea areas.

• ✓ (a) The European Commission describes the Nature Restoration Law as a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, with binding restoration targets for habitats and species that should cover at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030.
• ✗ (b) The World Bank Group describes its role as providing financial products and policy advice to countries; it is not the body that enacted this law.
• ✗ (c) The OECD describes itself as an international organisation that works to build better policies; it did not enact this law.
• ✗ (d) The FAO describes itself as a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger; it did not enact this law.
• • Since then The Commission's page now calls the same law the 'Nature Restoration Regulation'; in 2024 it used 'Nature Restoration Law'. The content and the dates above are unchanged.

Remember · The Nature Restoration Law is a European Union regulation, in force since 18 August 2024, with binding targets to restore ecosystems by 2030 and 2050.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three statements are wrong, so all three are 'not correct'. A State with a population of twenty lakh or less need not have intermediate-level Panchayats, the minimum age for a Panchayat member is twenty-one, and it is the Governor, not the Chief Minister, who constitutes the State Finance Commission.

• ✗ I Article 243B(1) requires three tiers in every State, but 243B(2) lets a State with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs skip the intermediate level, so it does not exist in all States.
• ✗ II Article 243F allows a person of twenty-one to be a Panchayat member; a candidate cannot be disqualified merely for being under twenty-five if he has reached twenty-one. Thirty years is not the requirement.
• ✗ III Under Article 243-I the Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission, every fifth year, to review the Panchayats' finances and recommend how tax proceeds are shared with them. The Chief Minister does not.

Remember · Intermediate tier optional if the State population is up to 20 lakh; minimum age 21; the Governor constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I only

Only Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has had seven members since Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. It began with the Bangkok Declaration of 1997, not a Dhaka Declaration; Nepal joined only in 2004, so it is not a founder; and the tourism sub-sector is led by Nepal, not India.

• ✓ I BIMSTEC's own history lists seven Member States: Myanmar joined in December 1997 and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004, so the count was seven in January 2025 too.
• ✗ II BIMSTEC's own history places its founding on 6 June 1997, with the Bangkok Declaration, not on a Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
• ✗ III The organisation began as BIST-EC with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand; Nepal joined only in 2004, so it is not a founding member.
• ✗ IV BIMSTEC's website records Nepal as the Lead Country for the tourism sub-sector, so India does not lead it.

Remember · BIMSTEC: founded by the Bangkok Declaration (6 June 1997) as BIST-EC with four states; seven members since 2004; Nepal leads tourism.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) II, III and IV

The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury has five members: the Prime Minister (chair), the Chief Justice of India, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and two eminent persons. The President of India is not on it.

• ✗ I The President of India is not named among the members of the Jury.
• ✓ II The Prime Minister of India is a member and chairs the Jury.
• ✓ III The Chief Justice of India is a member.
• ✓ IV The Leader of Opposition recognised as such in the Lok Sabha is a member; if there is no recognised Leader of Opposition, the leader of the single largest opposition party takes the seat.

Remember · Gandhi Peace Prize Jury: Prime Minister (chair), Chief Justice of India, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, plus two eminent persons.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) I and II only

GAGAN is India's satellite-based augmentation system, built by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India. It corrects GPS signals and warns pilots when a signal is unfit for navigation, which is what statements I and II describe. Statement III fails because GAGAN was made for civil aviation but is also used in other sectors, including maritime, road and rail.

• ✓ I GAGAN improves the accuracy of GPS and adds integrity information, that is, an alert when a GPS signal cannot be trusted for navigation.
• ✓ II Precise, dependable positioning across Indian airspace supports better air traffic management; the Government lists this among GAGAN's continuing aims.
• ✗ III The benefit is not limited to aviation. Government material lists maritime navigation, road transport, railways, disaster management, surveying and other sectors as users of GAGAN.

Remember · GAGAN (ISRO with AAI) is India's SBAS: it improves GPS accuracy, adds integrity alerts for aviation, helps air traffic management, and also serves maritime, road and rail.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) I only

The Paris AI Action Summit (10-11 February 2025) was hosted by France and co-chaired by India, and it followed the summits at Bletchley Park (UK) and Seoul (Republic of Korea). It ended with a leaders' statement on inclusive and sustainable AI, but the United States and the United Kingdom are not among its signatories.

• ✓ I France hosted the summit with India as co-chair. The French Presidency describes it as building on the momentum of the two earlier summits, organised by the UK (Bletchley Park) and the Republic of Korea (Seoul).
• ✗ II The Statement's official list of signatory countries includes India, China and France, and runs from Ukraine straight to Uruguay: neither the United States nor the United Kingdom appears on it.

Remember · Paris AI Action Summit, 10-11 February 2025: France host, India co-chair, after Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024). The US and UK did not sign its statement.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (d) All the four

The UN General Assembly has proclaimed all four of these observances for the years shown. Each pair matches the year set by the Assembly, so all four are correctly matched.

• ✓ I The United Nations declared 2026 the International Year of the Woman Farmer; the resolution invites FAO to help carry it out together with the other Rome-based UN agencies.
• ✓ II The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 26 February 2024 declaring 2027 the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, to be facilitated by UN Tourism.
• ✓ III The General Assembly declared 2025 the International Year of Peace and Trust, calling for conflicts to be resolved through inclusive dialogue and negotiation.
• ✓ IV 2029 is the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence, timed for the safe flyby of asteroid 99942 Apophis on 13 April 2029.

Remember · UN International Years: 2025 Peace and Trust; 2026 Woman Farmer; 2027 Sustainable and Resilient Tourism; 2029 Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence (Apophis flyby, 13 April 2029).

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