Making of the Constitution, Preamble & features

Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and notifications, and also custom or usage having the force of law in India. So X was right about what 'law' covers but wrong to doubt that custom is included; only Y's view is correct.

• ✗ (a) X's list is right as far as it goes, but he is wrong to leave out custom or usage, which Article 13(3)(a) expressly includes.
• ✗ (b) Y's view is exactly what Article 13(3)(a) says, so it cannot be called incorrect.
• ✗ (c) X's doubt about custom or usage is not sustained, so both cannot be correct.
• ✓ (d) Only Y is correct: the definition covers ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications and custom or usage having the force of law.

Remember · Art 13(3)(a): 'law' = ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage with the force of law. Any such 'law' that violates a Fundamental Right is void.

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Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Each statement denies that a particular Article exists, and each is wrong. Article 393 gives the short title, Article 394 fixes 26 January 1950 as the commencement date, and Article 395 repeals the two 1947 and 1935 Acts.

• ✗ 1. Article 393 says: 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.'
• ✗ 2. Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 (with enactments amending or supplementing the latter).
• ✗ 3. Article 394 says the remaining provisions came into force on 26 January 1950, which it calls the commencement of the Constitution.

Remember · Part XXII (Arts 393–395): 393 short title; 394 commencement (26 Jan 1950); 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act 1947 and the Government of India Act 1935.

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Answer: (a) I and II only

The proviso to Article 368(2) lists what needs ratification by at least half the States, and the list includes Article 162 (extent of a State's executive power) and any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. The conditions of the Governor's office (Article 158) are not in that list, so Parliament's special majority is enough for them.

• ✓ I Clause (c) of the proviso covers 'any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule', so a change to the Union List needs State ratification.
• ✓ II Article 162, which fixes the extent of a State's executive power, is named in clause (a) of the proviso.
• ✗ III Article 158, 'Conditions of Governor's office', is not among the articles or Chapters the proviso lists, so no State ratification is needed.

Remember · Ratification by half the States: Arts 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, 279A; Union and State judiciary chapters; Seventh Schedule Lists; States' representation in Parliament; Article 368 itself.

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Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha presided over the first sitting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946 as its temporary Chairman, because he was its oldest member. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was then elected the permanent President on 11 December 1946.

• ✓ (d) At the first sitting, J.B. Kripalani invited Dr. Sinha to take the chair as temporary Chairman, pointing out that he was the oldest member and the oldest parliamentarian in India.
• ✗ (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is remembered as Chairman of the Drafting Committee, not as the presiding officer of the Assembly.
• ✗ (a) C. Rajagopalachari was not the temporary Chairman at the first sitting on 9 December 1946.
• ✗ (c) T.T. Krishnamachari was not the temporary Chairman at the first sitting on 9 December 1946.

Remember · First sitting 9 December 1946: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha (oldest member) was temporary Chairman; Dr. Rajendra Prasad became permanent President on 11 December 1946.

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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Article 368(1) says in so many words that Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal, following the procedure laid down in that article. All three modes are named, though the Supreme Court has held that the basic structure cannot be altered.

• ✓ 1. Addition is the first mode listed in Article 368(1).
• ✓ 2. Variation, that is changing the existing wording, is the second mode listed.
• ✓ 3. Repeal, that is removing a provision, is the third mode listed.

Remember · Article 368(1): Parliament amends by addition, variation or repeal, through the prescribed procedure. The basic structure (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973) cannot be violated.

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Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

The Eighth Schedule itself shows that Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were inserted by the 71st Amendment (in force from 31 August 1992). Maithili came later, through the 92nd Amendment of 2003, along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali.

• ✓ 1. Konkani was inserted by the Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992.
• ✓ 2. Manipuri was inserted by the same 71st Amendment.
• ✓ 3. Nepali was also inserted by the 71st Amendment.
• ✗ 4. Maithili was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, in force from 7 January 2004.

Remember · 71st Amendment (1992): Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali. 92nd Amendment (2003): Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali. Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment (1967).

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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

All three statements match the Constitution's own arrangement. Part IXA is 'The Municipalities' (Articles 243P to 243ZG), Part XVIII is 'Emergency Provisions' (Articles 352 to 360), and Part XX is 'Amendment of the Constitution' (Article 368).

• ✓ 1. Part IXA, 'The Municipalities', includes Article 243W on the powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.
• ✓ 2. Part XVIII, 'Emergency Provisions', begins with Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) and runs to Article 360 (financial emergency).
• ✓ 3. Part XX contains a single article, Article 368, on the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it.

Remember · Part IXA: Municipalities (243P-243ZG). Part XVIII: Emergency (352-360). Part XX: Amendment (368).

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Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

A constitution's chief purpose is to define what powers a government has and to limit them, so that those in office cannot trespass on citizens' fundamental rights. The other options describe secondary functions or goals that only some constitutions pursue.

• ✓ (c) NCERT lists one core function of a constitution as setting limits on what a government can impose on its citizens, for example through fundamental rights. Defining and limiting government power is common to every constitution.
• ✗ (b) Creating a government and deciding who holds decision-making power is a real function, but it is a means of organising power, not the chief purpose.
• ✗ (d) Enabling a government to pursue a just society is another function, and it depends on the aims a particular constitution sets. Not every constitution promises social security.
• ✗ (a) A constitution lays down the basic rules and the source of law-making authority; it does not fix the objective of each law.

Remember · A constitution gives basic rules, says who holds power, limits government power to protect citizens, and enables a just society. 'Limits government power' is its core purpose.

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Answer: (b) Only two

Statements 1 and 2 are correct; statement 3 is wrong. The Constitution makes the Union protect every State from internal disturbance and denies a preventive detainee the right to a lawyer, while the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 allowed certain confessions made to a senior police officer to be used in court.

• ✓ 1. Article 355 says it is the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.
• ✓ 2. Article 22(1) gives an arrested person the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer, but Article 22(3)(b) says this does not apply to anyone arrested or detained under a preventive detention law.
• ✗ 3. Section 32 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 made a confession recorded by a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police admissible in trial under that Act, and required the officer to warn the person that it may be used against him. The Act was repealed in 2004.

Remember · Article 355: Union protects States from external aggression and internal disturbance. Article 22(3)(b): no right to a lawyer under preventive detention. POTA 2002 (repealed 2004) admitted confessions made to a police officer of SP rank or above.

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Answer: (a) Only one

Only statement 4 is correct. The Electoral College has only elected members, and the value of each MLA's vote equals the 1971 population of the State divided by its number of elected MLAs (then divided by 1,000), so more seats make each vote worth less, not more.

• ✗ 1. Article 54 limits the Electoral College to the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and of the State Legislative Assemblies. Nominated members are not eligible.
• ✗ 2. Under Article 55(2)(a) the number of elected MLAs is the divisor, so for a given population, more elective seats means a lower value for each MLA's vote.
• ✗ 3. Using 1971 Census population, each MLA vote is worth 152 in Kerala (about 2.13 crore people, 140 seats) and 131 in Madhya Pradesh (about 3.00 crore people, 230 seats). Madhya Pradesh's value is lower, not greater.
• ✓ 4. Puducherry (1971 population 4,71,707; 30 elected seats) gives 16 per MLA, while Arunachal Pradesh (4,67,511; 60 seats) gives 8. The populations are almost equal but Puducherry has half the seats, so its ratio of population to seats is higher.

Remember · Value of an MLA's vote = (State's 1971 population ÷ elected MLAs) ÷ 1,000, rounded. Only elected members vote, and states with fewer seats per head of population get a higher vote value.

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Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is correct: 26 November, the day the Constitution was adopted, is observed as Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) to bring constitutional principles and values before citizens. Statement-II is wrong: the Drafting Committee under Dr B. R. Ambedkar was set up on 29 August 1947, over two years before the Assembly passed the finished Constitution on 26 November 1949.

• ✓ Statement-I 26 November is kept every year as Constitution Day, also called Samvidhan Divas, to mark the adoption of the Constitution in 1949. The Government of India began the observance in 2015, Dr Ambedkar's 125th birth anniversary year, to highlight constitutional principles and values.
• ✗ Statement-II The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr B. R. Ambedkar, was set up on 29 August 1947. On 26 November 1949 the Constituent Assembly did not set up a committee; it adopted the Constitution that the committee's draft had led to.

Remember · Drafting Committee: set up 29 Aug 1947, Chairman Dr Ambedkar. Constitution adopted 26 Nov 1949 (Constitution Day), in force 26 Jan 1950 (Republic Day).

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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Article 368(2) lets an amendment bill be introduced in either House without any prior recommendation of the President. Each House must pass it separately by a special majority — no joint sitting — and the President then 'shall give his assent', so assent is obligatory.

• ✗ 1. Article 368(2) only says an amendment is initiated by introducing a Bill in either House of Parliament; no prior presidential recommendation is required.
• ✓ 2. Since the 24th Amendment (1971), Article 368(2) says the passed Bill 'shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent'. The President cannot send it back for reconsideration.
• ✓ 3. Each House must pass the Bill separately by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting; there is no provision for a joint sitting.

Remember · Article 368: introduce in either House, no President's prior recommendation; special majority in each House separately; no joint sitting; President must assent.

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Answer: (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

A State in political science has four essentials: people, a definite territory, a government, and sovereignty (freedom from outside control). Option (a) is the only one that names all four.

• ✓ (a) It has the community of persons (population), permanent occupation of a definite territory, an organised government and independence from external control (sovereignty).
• ✗ (b) It never mentions freedom from outside control, and it adds functions (protecting natural rights, sustenance) that are duties of a good State, not part of what makes a State.
• ✗ (c) Living together for a long time with a shared culture describes a nation or community. It leaves out sovereignty.
• ✗ (d) Adding an executive answerable to a central authority and an independent judiciary describes a particular form of government, not the basic definition of a State. Sovereignty is missing here too.

Remember · State = population + definite territory + government + sovereignty. The government can change; the State continues.

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Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: India has a single citizenship (and a single domicile, that of India), unlike federal countries that give people citizenship of both the nation and a state. Statement 2 is wrong because Article 58 requires the President to be a citizen of India, not a citizen by birth, and statement 3 is wrong because the Citizenship Act allows the Central Government to deprive some citizens of citizenship.

• ✓ 1. The Constitution provides only one citizenship, that of India; Article 5 speaks of domicile 'in the territory of India', not of any state. Some federal countries have dual citizenship; India does not.
• ✗ 2. Article 58 lists three conditions to be President: citizen of India, at least 35 years of age, and qualified to be elected to the Lok Sabha. Birth in India is not a condition, so a naturalised citizen can be eligible.
• ✗ 3. Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 lets the Central Government deprive a citizen who got citizenship by naturalisation or registration of it, for example where it was obtained by fraud, after giving notice. The Citizenship Rules, 2009 lay down the notice procedure.

Remember · One citizenship, one domicile. The President must be a citizen of India, not necessarily by birth. Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 allows deprivation of some citizens.

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Answer: (d) Separation of powers

Separation of powers is the best safeguard of liberty because it keeps law-making, law-enforcing and law-interpreting power in different hands, so each organ can check the others and none can rule unchecked. Centralised power removes those checks, and an elected government is itself the body that needs to be restrained.

• ✗ (a) A judiciary protects liberty only when it is independent of the legislature and executive. That independence is itself a product of separating the powers, so the judiciary alone is not the 'best' safeguard.
• ✗ (b) Centralising powers puts them in one place and removes the checks that protect individual freedom.
• ✗ (c) Elections choose the government but do not limit what it may do once in office; a majority can still override individual rights unless other organs hold it in check.
• ✓ (d) Dividing power among the legislature, executive and judiciary creates checks and balances: each organ can check what the others do and restore balance if one goes beyond its role.

Remember · Liberty is safest when no single organ holds all state power: separation of powers, with checks and balances among legislature, executive and judiciary, is the best safeguard.

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Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

On 26 January 1950 India was a Sovereign Democratic Republic. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble only by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, which took effect on 3 January 1977.

• ✗ (a) It leaves out 'Sovereign', which was in the Preamble from the start.
• ✓ (b) The original Preamble read 'Sovereign Democratic Republic'; the 42nd Amendment replaced these words with 'Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic' from 3 January 1977.
• ✗ (c) 'Secular' was inserted in 1976, so it was not part of the description in 1950.
• ✗ (d) This is the present wording, adopted only after the 42nd Amendment (1976), so it describes India after 1977, not in 1950.

Remember · 1950 Preamble: Sovereign Democratic Republic. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' (and 'integrity') were added by the 42nd Amendment, 1976, effective 3 January 1977.

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Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Constitutional government means a government whose powers are limited by the terms of the Constitution. A constitution sets limits on what the government may do, and the government may not go beyond them.

• ✗ (a) This describes a representative, federal government. Whether a government is federal or unitary is a separate question from whether its powers are limited by a constitution.
• ✗ (b) A Head with nominal powers describes the parliamentary system (for example India's President in practice, or a constitutional monarch); it is not the definition of constitutional government.
• ✗ (c) A Head with real powers describes the presidential system; the size of the Head's powers does not define constitutional government.
• ✓ (d) The third function of a constitution is to set limits on what a government can impose on its citizens; these limits are fundamental, so the government may never trespass them.

Remember · Constitutional government = government limited by the Constitution. It is defined by limits on power, not by federal structure or by how strong the Head is.

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Answer: (d) limited government

The defining idea of constitutionalism is that government power is bounded: a constitution sets limits that the government may not cross, chiefly through rights of citizens and a division of powers. A government bound by such limits is a limited government, whatever its form.

• ✓ (d) A constitution lays down limits on what a government can impose on its citizens, and those limits cannot be trespassed; that is what makes a government 'constitutional'.
• ✗ (b) A popular (elected or well-liked) government can still act without limits; popularity is not what defines constitutional government.
• ✗ (a) Rule by the legislature describes where power sits, not whether it is limited; a legislature too is bound by the constitution.

Remember · Constitutionalism = limited government: the constitution restrains every organ of the State, mainly through fundamental rights and separation of powers.

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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR, adopted by the UN General Assembly on 10 December 1948) covers dignity and brotherhood, social and economic rights, and the individual's duties to the community. These ideas appear in the Preamble, the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Duties respectively, not only in Part III.

• ✓ 1. UDHR Article 1 speaks of equal dignity and a spirit of brotherhood; the Preamble promises justice, liberty and equality and a fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
• ✓ 2. UDHR Article 23 gives the right to work and to equal pay for equal work; Directive Principles such as Article 39(d) (equal pay for men and women) and the right to work and education carry the same social and economic rights.
• ✓ 3. UDHR Article 29 says everyone has duties to the community; Part IVA (Article 51A) lists citizens' duties, such as promoting the spirit of common brotherhood.

Remember · UDHR (10 December 1948) echoes across the Constitution: Fundamental Rights (civil-political), DPSP (socio-economic rights), Preamble (dignity, fraternity) and Fundamental Duties (duties to community, UDHR Art 29).

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Answer: (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

The defining feature of a parliamentary system is that the executive survives only while it keeps the confidence of the legislature. In India the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, which can remove it at any time.

• ✓ (b) The Council of Ministers depends on majority support in the legislature and can be removed whenever it loses that support, for example through a no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha.
• ✗ (d) A government with a fixed term that the legislature cannot remove is a feature of the presidential system, as in the USA, not the parliamentary one.
• ✗ (c) Voters elect the legislature, not the government directly; the government is formed from the majority in the legislature and answers to it.

Remember · Parliamentary system: executive drawn from and responsible to the legislature, removable any time by loss of confidence. Presidential system: fixed-term executive not removable by the legislature (except impeachment).

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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Neither term is written into the Constitution. The 'basic structure' doctrine was laid down by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), and the phrase 'judicial review' appears nowhere in the Constitution: the power is implied from the written Constitution and from provisions such as Articles 13 and 32, not provided for by name. Both statements, which put the terms in quotes, are therefore incorrect.

• ✗ 1. The Constitution does not mention or define a 'basic structure'. The Supreme Court created the doctrine in 1973, and features such as federalism and secularism have been identified case by case by the courts.
• ✗ 2. The term 'judicial review' is not used in the Constitution. Courts derive the power from the written Constitution and from provisions that make laws violating Fundamental Rights void; the statement treats it as something the Constitution expressly provides.

Remember · Basic structure: a judge-made doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973), not listed in the Constitution. 'Judicial review' is also not a term in the Constitution; the power is implied.

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Answer: (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. But it is non-justiciable: it neither grants nor limits powers on its own, and is used to interpret the other provisions, so it has no legal effect independently of them.

• ✓ (d) The Preamble is part of the Constitution but cannot be enforced in a court by itself; its force comes through helping courts read ambiguous provisions.
• ✗ (b) The 1960 Berubari opinion had said the Preamble was not part of the Constitution, but Kesavananda Bharati (1973) overruled that view.
• ✗ (c) It does not carry the same force as operative articles: it cannot override specific provisions, and where the two conflict, the provisions prevail.

Remember · Preamble: part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973), amendable without touching the basic structure, amended once (42nd Amendment, 1976), non-justiciable, an aid to interpretation.

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Answer: (b) 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct. It was the 39th Amendment (1975) that inserted Article 329A to shield the Prime Minister's election from the courts, and the 44th Amendment (1978) removed it. The Supreme Court did strike down the 99th Amendment, which created the NJAC, in October 2015.

• ✗ 1. Article 329A, on elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker, was inserted by the 39th Amendment in 1975. The 44th Amendment, passed after the Emergency, omitted it instead of introducing it.
• ✓ 2. In the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association case (16 October 2015), a five-judge Bench struck down the 99th Amendment and the NJAC scheme, holding that the Union Law Minister's place in the Commission and the 'eminent persons' clause breached judicial independence, part of the basic structure.

Remember · 39th Amendment (1975) inserted Article 329A for the Prime Minister's election; the 44th (1978) omitted it. The 99th Amendment (NJAC) was struck down on 16 October 2015.

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Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

The Ninth Schedule was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, which came into force on 18 June 1951. Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister from 15 August 1947 to 27 May 1964, so it was introduced in his time.

• ✓ (a) The First Amendment, 1951, inserted Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule so that the listed laws, mainly land-reform laws, could not be declared void for clashing with Fundamental Rights. Nehru was Prime Minister then.
• ✗ (c) This is the tempting option because Indira Gandhi's period saw many later additions to the Schedule, but the Schedule itself dates from 1951.
• ✗ (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri was Prime Minister only from 1964 to 1966, long after 1951.
• ✗ (d) Morarji Desai headed the government from 1977 to 1979, well after the Ninth Schedule had been created.

Remember · Ninth Schedule and Article 31B came with the First Amendment, 1951, under Nehru; the Fourth Amendment, 1955, added entries 14 to 20.

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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements are wrong. High Courts, like the Supreme Court, can examine any law and declare it unconstitutional, and the Supreme Court can strike down even a constitutional amendment if it violates the basic structure.

• ✗ 1. Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court or the High Courts to test whether any law conforms to the Constitution. A High Court can therefore hold a central law invalid.
• ✗ 2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) the Supreme Court held that even Parliament cannot violate the basic structure through an amendment. When the 42nd Amendment tried to assert parliamentary supremacy, the Court repeated its stand in Minerva Mills (1980).

Remember · Judicial review belongs to High Courts as well as the Supreme Court, and after Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the courts can strike down amendments that violate the basic structure.

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Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Liberty is best understood as the chance to develop one's talents and potential to the full, within reasonable social limits. Merely having no restraint is only one side of freedom, and no one can have unlimited freedom in society.

• ✓ (d) NCERT describes freedom as the condition in which people can develop their creativity and capabilities, and a free society as one that lets all its members develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.
• ✗ (b) Absence of restraint is what NCERT calls only one aspect of freedom (negative liberty); it leaves out the conditions needed to develop oneself.
• ✗ (c) No individual living in society can enjoy a total absence of constraints, so doing whatever one likes cannot be the definition of liberty.
• ✗ (a) Protection from rulers' tyranny is one purpose of liberty, but it is narrower than the full idea, which also covers the opportunity to develop oneself.

Remember · Liberty has two sides: freedom from unjustified constraints (negative) and freedom to develop one's potential (positive). The fullest definition stresses the opportunity to develop oneself.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2019, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: under Article 55 an MLA's vote value is worked out from the population of his or her State, so it differs from State to State. Every elected MP, of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, has the same vote value.

• ✓ 1. Article 55(2)(a) gives each MLA as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the State's population divided by the number of its elected MLAs. Population and the size of the Assembly differ from State to State, so the vote value differs too.
• ✗ 2. Article 55(2)(c) gives each elected MP of either House the same number of votes: the total of all MLAs' vote values divided by the total number of elected MPs of both Houses. So a Lok Sabha MP's vote is worth exactly as much as a Rajya Sabha MP's.

Remember · President's election (Art. 55): MLA vote value depends on the State's population; every elected MP has one common vote value, whichever House he or she sits in.

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

Law and liberty go together: without laws, nobody's freedom is protected from the coercion of others, so there is no real liberty. Law restrains harmful acts and thereby secures the freedom of everyone.

• ✓ (b) Political theory treats law as a support for freedom: legal restraints are needed so that one group cannot coercively impose its views on another, and law protects each person's freedom.
• ✗ (a) This treats law as the enemy of liberty. Only unnecessary or unjustified constraints reduce freedom; the test is whether a restriction is necessary and justified, not how many laws exist.
• ✗ (c) Laws being made by the people is a feature of democratic government and positive liberty, but it does not describe the basic relationship between law and liberty.

Remember · Law and liberty are not opposites: laws protect liberty. Where there is no law, the strong dominate and there is no liberty for others.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 2 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 2 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Rule of law means that power is limited by law, that everyone stands equal before the law, and that people's rights are protected against arbitrary action. It does not make people responsible to the government, so 1, 2 and 4 are its features.

• ✓ 1. Rule of law means no one, including those in power, is above the law. This limits the powers of rulers and prevents misuse of power.
• ✓ 2. All individuals, rich or poor, are subject to the same law and get equal protection of the law.
• ✗ 3. The principle checks those who govern, and it is not about citizens owing responsibility to the government. Accountability runs from the government to the people.
• ✓ 4. No one can be punished except by procedure established by law, and everyone gets a fair chance to defend their rights against arbitrary action, so liberty and civil rights are protected.

Remember · Rule of law: no one above the law, equality before law, and protection of liberty and rights against arbitrary power.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 9 Understanding Society: India and Beyond, Ch 6 (practise this chapter) · Class 9 Understanding Society: India and Beyond, Ch 6 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Indian Constitution at Work, Ch 6 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error

Answer: (a) Privileges

Equality means that the treatment people get and the chances open to them are not fixed by birth or status. That requires ending special privileges reserved for a few; it does not require removing rules, rivalry or beliefs.

• ✓ (a) The first step towards equality is dismantling formal systems of inequality and privilege, such as rights, offices or entry open only to some castes, classes or sexes.
• ✗ (c) Equality of opportunity is compatible with competition; liberal thinkers in fact treat fair competition as a just way to distribute rewards once everyone starts on equal terms.
• ✗ (b) An equal society still has laws and restraints; equality asks that the same restraints apply to all, not that restraints disappear.

Remember · Equality = no special privileges by birth or status, plus equal opportunities. It sits comfortably with laws (restraints) and fair competition.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Political Theory, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink · Report an error