Minimalist IAS
Economy & social development

Prelims · Economy & social development · 34 questions

Budget, taxation & public finance

Every UPSC Prelims question on this topic, 2016–2026, newest first. Tap an option to check yourself; the answer and explanation open below it.

Budget, taxation & public finance questions per year: 2016: 3, 2017: 3, 2018: 4, 2019: 0, 2020: 1, 2021: 3, 2022: 3, 2023: 1, 2024: 1, 2025: 5, 2026: 1 Asked in 10 of 11 years · most in 2025 (5)

UPSC syllabus: “Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.” See the full syllabus →

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Prelims 2026 · Q94

Easy Provisional key

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Crowding out happens when heavy government borrowing absorbs the available savings and raises the cost of funds, leaving less credit and lower investment for the private sector. Option (b) states exactly this.

  • ✓ (b) Government borrowing competes with private borrowers for savings and credit; the RBI’s Urjit Patel Committee report notes government market borrowing crowding out funds to the private sector.
  • ✗ (a) This is the opposite, called crowding in, where government spending raises private investment.
  • ✗ (c) Higher taxes reduce, not raise, private disposable income and do not describe crowding out.
  • ✗ (d) Crowding out is about the effect on private investment; government spending does affect aggregate demand.

Remember · Crowding out: government borrowing pushes up interest rates or absorbs credit, so private investment falls. Opposite: crowding in.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's provisional GS Paper I (2026, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

OrganizationSome of its functionsIt works under
I.Directorate of EnforcementEnforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II.Directorate of Revenue IntelligenceEnforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III.Directorate General of Systems and Data ManagementCarrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evadersDepartment of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Only one

Only the DRI row is fully right. The Enforcement Directorate does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but it works under the Department of Revenue, not the Home Ministry. Big data analytics to help tax officers is the job of CBIC's Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), not the DG of Systems and Data Management.

  • ✗ I The ED enforces PMLA, FEMA and the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, but the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) lists it as its attached office; it is not under the Home Ministry.
  • ✓ II The DRI is the apex anti-smuggling agency of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, enforcing the Customs Act, 1962 under the Department of Revenue.
  • ✗ III The data-mining and analytics role described belongs to DGARM, which CBIC created as its apex body for data analytics and risk management in July 2017.

Remember · ED, DRI and CBIC's directorates all sit under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Tax data analytics and risk profiling: DGARM (CBIC, 2017).

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement-I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
  2. Statement-II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Only 'agricultural income', which must come from land used for agriculture, is exempt. Poultry farming or wool rearing does not involve cultivating land, so its income is taxable like business income. Separately, section 2(14) excludes rural agricultural land from 'capital asset', so gains on selling it escape capital gains tax.

  • ✗ Statement-I Section 2(1A) ties agricultural income to land in India used for agricultural purposes. Audit has treated even milk sales as dairy income, not income from agricultural land, so allied activities are taxable.
  • ✓ Statement-II Section 2(14) excludes agricultural land from 'capital asset', except land within or near municipalities and cantonments of specified population (urban agricultural land).
  • • Since then Since 1 April 2026 the Income-tax Act, 2025 has replaced the 1961 Act; PIB says the rewrite does not alter the underlying tax policy (PIB, 1 April 2026).

Remember · Exempt agricultural income must arise from land used for agriculture; poultry, dairy, wool are taxable. Rural agricultural land is not a capital asset, so no capital gains tax on it.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. I.Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
  2. II.Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
  3. III.Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) I and II only

A capital receipt either creates a liability (borrowing must be repaid) or reduces the government's assets (selling PSU shares). Interest the government earns on loans it has given is non-tax revenue: it creates no claim on the government, so III is wrong.

  • ✓ I NCERT defines capital receipts as all receipts that create a liability or reduce the government's financial assets.
  • ✓ II Fresh loans create a liability to repay, and disinvestment (sale of PSU shares) reduces financial assets, so both are capital receipts.
  • ✗ III Interest receipts on loans given by the government are non-tax revenue, a revenue receipt that does not lead to any claim on the government.

Remember · Capital receipt = creates liability or reduces assets (borrowings, recovery of loans, disinvestment). Revenue receipt = no claim on government (taxes, interest, dividends, fees).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. I.Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
  2. II.Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
  3. III.Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) I, II and III

All three are correct. Revenue deficit is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, so ₹80,000 crore − ₹60,000 crore = ₹20,000 crore. The fiscal deficit is the government's total borrowing requirement, here ₹10,000 crore, and the primary deficit, which is that figure without the ₹6,000 crore of interest, is ₹4,000 crore.

  • ✓ I Spending on the revenue account (₹80,000 crore) overshoots what the government earns on that account (₹60,000 crore) by ₹20,000 crore, and that gap is the revenue deficit.
  • ✓ II The fiscal deficit shows how much the government must borrow. The Budget shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crore, so the fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crore.
  • ✓ III Take the ₹10,000 crore fiscal deficit and leave out the ₹6,000 crore that goes to interest; what remains, ₹4,000 crore, is the primary deficit.

Remember · Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts. Fiscal deficit = borrowing requirement. Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − interest payments.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) ₹ 48,500 crores

Gross primary deficit = gross fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities = ₹50,000 crore − ₹1,500 crore = ₹48,500 crore. The ₹10,000 crore of non-debt capital receipts is already counted while working out the fiscal deficit, so it is not adjusted again.

  • ✓ (a) 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore, using the primary deficit formula.
  • ✗ (b) ₹51,500 crore adds the interest liabilities instead of subtracting them.
  • ✗ (c) ₹58,500 crore wrongly brings in the ₹10,000 crore of non-debt receipts, which are already reflected in the fiscal deficit.
  • ✗ (d) The correct figure, ₹48,500 crore, is option (a).

Remember · Primary deficit = fiscal deficit − net interest liabilities. Non-debt capital receipts are already netted out inside the fiscal deficit.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

  1. I.It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
  2. II.45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
  3. III.₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
  4. IV.It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Statements I, III and IV match the Fifteenth Finance Commission's report. Statement II is wrong: the Commission kept the States' share at 41 per cent of the divisible pool, not 45 per cent.

  • ✓ I It recommended ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore a year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivise States to improve educational outcomes.
  • ✗ II Vertical devolution was kept at 41 per cent of the divisible pool: the Fourteenth Commission's 42 per cent, adjusted by about 1 per cent for the change in the status of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • ✓ III ₹45,000 crore was set aside as a performance-based incentive for States carrying out agricultural reforms, such as amending land-related laws on the lines of NITI Aayog's model law.
  • ✓ IV The Commission re-introduced the tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.

Remember · 15th Finance Commission (2021–26): States' share 41% of divisible pool; ₹4,800 crore education incentive; ₹45,000 crore agri-reform incentive; tax-effort criterion re-introduced.

Sources

  • PIB, Finance Commission (1 Feb 2021): The Report of the Fifteenth Finance Commission ↗ “XVFC has recommended grants of Rs. 4,800 crore (Rs. 1,200 crore each year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivising the States to enhance educational outcomes. … XVFC has recommended maintaining the vertical devolution at 41 per cent – the same as in our report for 2020-21. … XVFC has recommended that Rs. 45,000 crore be kept as performance-based incentive for all the States for carrying out agricultural reforms for amending their land-related laws on the lines of NITI Aayog’s model law … XVFC has re-introduced tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2025, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
  2. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Why not the tempting option · UPSC's key is (a). A stricter legal reading objects that a default would not extinguish holders' claims — the US Constitution (14th Amendment, section 4) says the validity of the public debt shall not be questioned — so some read Statement-I as incorrect and pick (d). But 'exercise their claims to receive payment' is about actually being paid, which a default by definition prevents, and the absence of any hard asset behind the debt (Statement-II) is precisely why holders would have no recourse. In the exam, read such statements as economics, not as a point of law.

UPSC's key accepts both statements, with Statement-II explaining Statement-I. US Treasury securities carry no collateral; they rest on the full faith and credit of the US government, a promise to pay. A default is a failure to honour that promise, and because nothing but the promise stands behind the bonds, holders would have no asset to claim against and could not get paid.

  • ✓ Statement-I A default means the government does not make the payments due. Holders' claims rest on the government's promise alone, so when the promise fails there is no collateral to seize and no asset to realise: the claim to payment exists but cannot be exercised.
  • ✓ Statement-II The US Treasury states that all its marketable securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government — a pledge of the government's word (reinforced by the constitutional rule that the validity of the public debt 'shall not be questioned'), not of specific assets. That is exactly why Statement-I follows: with no hard asset behind the debt, a default leaves holders with nothing to enforce against.

Remember · US Treasury debt is unsecured: it rests on the government's full faith and credit, not on collateral. That is why a default would leave holders unable to collect — there is no hard-asset fallback.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2024, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
  2. 2.At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

UPSC's official answer: (c) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (b)

  • Statement 2 is the Constitution's own words: Article 113(3), 'No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.'
  • Statement 1 says the Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement 'on behalf of the Prime Minister'. Article 112(1) says 'the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament' the statement, and Lok Sabha Rule 204 says the Budget 'shall be presented to the House on such day as the President may direct'. In form, the Minister lays it for the President, not the Prime Minister.
  • UPSC's key accepts statement 1 on its substance: the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers 'with the Prime Minister at the head' (Article 74), and the Finance Minister presents the Budget for that Government. Hence (c).
  • A reader who holds the statement to the constitutional form, under which the statement is laid on the President's authority, rejects 1 and answers (b).

UPSC's key accepts statement 1 for its substance, the Finance Minister acting for the Government the Prime Minister heads; held to the form of Article 112, it fails and the answer is (b). In the exam, treat a statement as correct when its substance is right and only the form of words is loose.

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

Statement 2 is straight from the Constitution: Article 113(3) bars any demand for a grant without the President's recommendation. For statement 1, the Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament for the Government, the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, on whose advice the President 'causes' it to be laid under Article 112. UPSC's key treats both as correct.

  • ✓ 1. Article 112(1) makes the President cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses; under Article 74 the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at its head, and the Finance Minister lays the statement on the Government's behalf, presenting the Budget in the Lok Sabha and laying it in the Rajya Sabha.
  • ✓ 2. Article 113(3): no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. Demands for grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha only in this way.

Remember · Art 112: the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid; the Finance Minister presents the Budget for the Government headed by the Prime Minister. Art 113(3): no demand for a grant without the President's recommendation.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Social Change and Development in India, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

  • NCERT Class 12 · Social Change and Development in India, Chapter 3 “Every year in February the Finance Minister of the Government of India presents the Budget to the Parliament.”
  • Constitution of India, Article 112(1): annual financial statement ↗ “The President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year … No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. … There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2024, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
  2. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

An InvIT is a 'pass-through' vehicle: interest it receives from its project SPVs is not taxed at the trust level but is taxed when distributed to unitholders, so Statement-I gets it the wrong way round. The Finance Act, 2021 widened the SARFAESI Act's definition of 'borrower' to include pooled investment vehicles such as InvITs, so Statement-II is right.

  • ✗ Statement-I Under section 115UA of the Income-tax Act, interest income that an InvIT passes on to its unitholders is deemed to be their income and is taxed in their hands; it is not exempt.
  • ✓ Statement-II From 1 April 2021, clause (f) of section 2(1) of the SARFAESI Act covers 'any person who, or a pooled investment vehicle' that has taken financial assistance, and business trusts such as InvITs and REITs are pooled investment vehicles. Lenders can therefore enforce security against them.

Remember · InvIT/REIT = business trust = pooled investment vehicle. Interest passed to unitholders is taxable in their hands. Since 2021, InvITs and REITs count as 'borrowers' under SARFAESI.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2023, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following:

  1. 1.Demographic performance
  2. 2.Forest and ecology
  3. 3.Governance reforms
  4. 4.Stable government
  5. 5.Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Only three

The Fifteenth Finance Commission shared the divisible pool among states on six criteria: income distance (45%), population (15%), area (15%), forest and ecology (10%), demographic performance (12.5%) and tax and fiscal efforts (2.5%). Governance reforms and stable government were not criteria, so three of the listed items were used.

  • ✓ 1. Demographic performance carried a 12.5% weight: the Commission used Census 2011 population but wanted to reward states that had done better on the demographic front.
  • ✓ 2. Forest and ecology carried a 10% weight in the 15th Finance Commission's formula.
  • ✗ 3. Governance reforms were not a criterion in the devolution formula.
  • ✗ 4. 'Stable government' was never part of the formula.
  • ✓ 5. Tax and fiscal efforts carried a 2.5% weight: the Commission re-introduced the tax effort criterion to reward fiscal performance.

Remember · 15th FC horizontal devolution: income distance 45, population (2011) 15, area 15, demographic performance 12.5, forest and ecology 10, tax and fiscal efforts 2.5. States' share: 41%.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2023, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
  2. 2.When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
  3. 3.In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Only two

UPSC's official answer: (b) · the answer UPSC accepted, and the one that counts in the exam

Also defensible: (a)

  • Statement 2 is correct on any reading: under Article 109(2) the Rajya Sabha must 'return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations' within fourteen days.
  • Statement 3 fails on 'becomes necessary': Article 108 only says the President 'may' summon a joint sitting on a non-Money Bill; it is never compulsory, and a Money Bill has no joint sitting at all.
  • Statement 1 depends on what 'Finance Bill' means. UPSC's key treats it as a financial Bill that is not a Money Bill, which the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject like any other Bill, so 1 and 2 are correct: two, option (b).
  • But the Finance Bill of the Budget, defined in Lok Sabha Rule 219 as 'the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India', is certified a Money Bill: 'A Finance Bill is a Money Bill but not all money bills are Finance Bills' (Arthapedia, Indian Economic Service). On that reading the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject it, 1 fails too, and only 2 holds: option (a).

UPSC's key is (b), reading 'Finance Bill' as the non-Money financial Bill; read as the annual Finance Bill, a Money Bill, only statement 2 survives, giving (a). In the exam, when UPSC sets 'Finance Bill' against 'Money Bill', read it as the non-Money financial Bill, and never let 'necessary' pass for 'possible'.

This box is Minimalist IAS's analysis, with its sources; it does not change UPSC's answer.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is not, so two are correct. The question sets a Finance Bill against a Money Bill, so the Finance Bill here is a financial Bill that is not a Money Bill: the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject it like any other Bill (1), while a Money Bill it can only return with recommendations within 14 days (2). Statement 3 fails on 'becomes necessary': Article 108 lets the President summon a joint sitting on a non-Money Bill, but it is never compulsory.

  • ✓ 1. Article 117(1) restricts a financial Bill only at introduction: the President's recommendation, and no introduction in the Rajya Sabha. Once transmitted, the Rajya Sabha can amend or reject it; Article 108 itself contemplates such a Bill being 'rejected by the other House' or the Houses disagreeing on amendments.
  • ✓ 2. Article 109(2): the Council of States must return a Money Bill within fourteen days with recommendations, and the House of the People may accept or reject any of them.
  • ✗ 3. No joint sitting for a Money Bill is right (Article 108 proviso), but a joint sitting never 'becomes necessary': on a disagreement the President 'may' notify a joint sitting, and the Bill may simply lapse. A possible remedy is not a necessary one.

Remember · Money Bill: Lok Sabha only; Rajya Sabha may only recommend within 14 days; no joint sitting. Other financial Bills: Rajya Sabha can amend or reject; a joint sitting is possible (the President 'may' summon one), never necessary.

Sources

  • Constitution of India, Article 109(2) (Legislative Department) ↗ “the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations … his intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill: Provided that nothing in this clause shall apply to a Money Bill. … and a Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of States … (a) the Bill is rejected by the other House; or (b) the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill … the President may, unless the Bill has elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the People, notify to the Houses by message if they are sitting or by public notification if they are not sitting, his intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2023, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that

  1. 1.limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
  2. 2.makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
  3. 3.enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Only one

Only statement 1 is correct. The Stability and Growth Pact is a set of fiscal rules that keeps member states' budget deficits (3% of GDP) and public debt (60% of GDP) within limits; it says nothing about sharing infrastructure or technology.

  • ✓ 1. The Pact is meant to ensure sound public finances and coordinated fiscal policies, and compliance is checked against reference values of 3% of GDP for the government deficit and 60% for gross debt.
  • ✗ 2. The Pact is a budgetary-discipline framework. It does not oblige countries to pool or share infrastructure facilities.
  • ✗ 3. Technology sharing is not part of the Pact, which deals only with fiscal policy.

Remember · EU Stability and Growth Pact: fiscal rules limiting deficits (3% of GDP) and debt (60% of GDP), enforced through the excessive deficit procedure.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2023, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"?

  1. 1.Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
  2. 2.IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
  3. 3.The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Because the principal and payouts of an IIB rise with inflation, investors do not need an extra premium for inflation risk, so the government can borrow at a lower (real) coupon while investors are shielded from inflation. There is no tax break: normal tax rules apply to both interest and capital gains.

  • ✓ 1. The RBI's technical paper on IIBs lists cost savings for the government, partly by removing the risk premium that lenders charge for uncertain inflation, so the coupon can be set lower in real terms.
  • ✓ 2. The principal is indexed to inflation and the coupon is paid on the indexed principal, so the investor's real return is protected when prices rise.
  • ✗ 3. The RBI's FAQ says existing tax provisions apply to interest and capital gains on IIBs; there is no special tax treatment.

Remember · IIBs: principal indexed to inflation, real coupon; cheaper borrowing for government (no inflation risk premium) and inflation protection for investors; fully taxable as usual.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

An 'indirect transfer' is the sale of shares of a company based outside India whose value comes mainly from assets in India — the Indian assets change hands indirectly. The Finance Act, 2012 made such gains taxable in India with retrospective effect, and the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 withdrew that retrospective tax for deals before 28 May 2012.

  • ✓ (d) Since 2012, Section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act treats shares of a foreign company as situated in India if they derive their value substantially from Indian assets, so their transfer offshore can be taxed in India.
  • ✗ (b) A foreign investor paying tax at home on its profits is ordinary cross-border taxation; no Indian assets are being transferred through offshore shares.
  • ✗ (a) This is simply outward investment by an Indian company taxed abroad; it has nothing to do with Indian assets changing hands through a foreign entity.

Remember · Indirect transfer = offshore sale of shares of a foreign company that derive substantial value from Indian assets. The 2012 retrospective tax on such pre-28 May 2012 deals was withdrawn in 2021.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1.Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
  2. 2.Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

Spending that creates a lasting asset — such as new technology, machinery or equipment — is capital expenditure. Debt and equity are ways of raising money, not ways of spending it, so neither can be classed as capital or revenue expenditure.

  • ✓ 1. Buying new technology adds a long-lived asset that yields benefits over years, which is exactly what capital expenditure means (like spending on machinery and equipment).
  • ✗ 2. Borrowing (debt) and issuing shares (equity) are sources of funds. For a government, loans are capital receipts because they create a liability; they are not expenditure of any kind.

Remember · Capital expenditure creates assets or cuts liabilities (land, machinery, technology). Debt and equity are financing — receipts, not expenditure.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
  2. 2.Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The government borrows at home from the public — directly through small savings schemes and indirectly through banks, insurers and provident funds that hold household money — so part of household savings finances it. Most of the Centre's internal debt is in dated securities sold at auctions.

  • ✓ 1. Household deposits in small savings schemes are lent to the Centre through the National Small Savings Fund, and bank deposits flow into government bonds that banks must hold under the SLR.
  • ✓ 2. At end-March 2022, dated securities alone made up 66.5 per cent of the Centre's public debt, most of which is internal debt; they are sold through auctions at market-determined yields.

Remember · Centre's internal debt: dominated by auctioned dated securities (about two-thirds of public debt, 2022); household savings reach the government via small savings (NSSF) and banks' SLR holdings.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

  • NCERT Class 12 · Introductory Macroeconomics, Chapter 5 “Net borrowing at home includes that directly borrowed from the public through debt instruments (for example, the various small savings schemes) and indirectly from commercial banks through Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).”
  • Ministry of Finance (DEA) — Status Paper on Government Debt 2021-22 ↗ “The outstanding amount under dated securities and Treasury Bills accounted for 66.5 per cent and 6.2 per cent of the Public Debt, respectively (Table 1.4). … The non-marketable securities in internal debt are the special Central Government securities issued to National Small Savings Fund (NSSF), securities issued to international financial institutions”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Increase in expenditure on public projects

A recession is a shortfall of demand, so the remedy is to add demand. Government spending on public projects is itself part of aggregate demand and, through the multiplier, raises output and income by more than the amount spent.

  • ✓ (b) Higher public spending directly adds to aggregate demand, creates jobs and incomes, and so counters the slump.
  • ✗ (a) The tax cut helps, but raising interest rates at the same time makes borrowing dearer and holds back investment and consumption, working against recovery.
  • ✗ (d) Cutting public spending removes demand from an economy that already lacks it and would deepen the recession.

Remember · Recession = too little demand. Counter it with expansionary fiscal policy (more public spending, lower taxes) and easier money (lower interest rates).

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 4 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2021, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Black money is, at its core, income hidden from the tax authorities. The Finance Ministry's White Paper on Black Money (2012) describes it as wealth built up by failing to pay dues to the public exchequer, so the loss of tax revenue is the government's central worry; the other options are side effects.

  • ✓ (d) Unreported income escapes tax, shrinking the revenue the State needs for public spending and shifting the burden to honest taxpayers.
  • ✗ (a) Parking black money in real estate and luxury housing does happen, but it is a consequence of the hidden income, not the main concern.
  • ✗ (b) Buying gold and jewellery with black money is a way of storing it; the harm the government stresses is the tax that was never paid.

Remember · Black money = income or wealth concealed from tax authorities; its chief cost to the State is lost revenue through tax evasion.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2021, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

A deficit can be financed by taxes, borrowing or printing money. Borrowing only moves existing money from lenders to the government, but creating new money adds to the money supply while the supply of goods stays the same, so it pushes prices up the most.

  • ✓ (d) New money raises total spending power without adding output, the classic cause of demand-pull inflation.
  • ✗ (b) Borrowing from the public takes money people would otherwise have spent or saved, so the net addition to demand is smaller.
  • ✗ (c) Bank borrowing uses deposits already in the system; it can add to demand but far less than fresh money creation.

Remember · Deficits are financed by taxation, borrowing or printing money; printing (monetising) the deficit is the most inflationary.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2021, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include 'The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

The Macro-Economic Framework Statement is one of the fiscal policy statements that the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 requires the Central Government to lay before both Houses along with the annual Budget. The Constitution requires the Budget itself, not this statement.

  • ✓ (d) The FRBM Act, 2003 requires the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and the Macro-Economic Framework Statement to accompany the annual financial statement; the last assesses GDP growth, the Centre's fiscal balance and the external balance.
  • ✗ (b) Article 112 requires the 'annual financial statement' (the Budget), and Article 110(1) defines a Money Bill; neither mentions a macro-economic framework statement.
  • ✗ (c) Article 113 lays down how Parliament deals with the estimates, including voting on demands for grants in the Lok Sabha; it does not require this statement.

Remember · FRBM Act, 2003: fiscal policy statements laid with the Budget include the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and the Macro-Economic Framework Statement.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2020, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?

  1. 1.Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops
  2. 2.Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
  3. 3.Social Capital development
  4. 4.Free electricity supply to farmers
  5. 5.Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
  6. 6.Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 6 only

Public investment in agriculture means government spending that builds lasting capacity, such as institutions and infrastructure. Computerising PACS and building cold storage do this, whereas MSP, free electricity and loan waivers are price support or subsidies that add no new capacity.

  • ✗ 1. MSP is a price-support instrument, not investment. NITI Aayog treats price support as a separate policy tool from subsidies and public investment.
  • ✓ 2. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies are cooperative institutions, and public spending on cooperative institutions counts as public investment. Computerising them is a Government of India project with its own outlay, and it builds institutional capacity.
  • ✓ 3. UPSC's official key treats this statement as correct; we could not confirm the detail from an official source, so we do not explain it here. It is a different kind of item from the price-support and subsidy options.
  • ✗ 4. Free or cheap power to farmers is a subsidy; NITI Aayog lists power subsidy (borne by State Governments) among the major subsidies, not investments.
  • ✗ 5. A loan waiver only writes off existing debt and creates no new asset or capacity; it is a fiscal relief measure, not investment.
  • ✓ 6. Cold storage is physical post-harvest infrastructure that cuts wastage and raises farmers' realisation; government schemes finance it as infrastructure investment.

Remember · Public investment in agriculture = asset- and institution-building spending (irrigation, R&D, cooperatives, storage). MSP, free power and loan waivers are support or subsidies.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Indian Society, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Indian Economic Development, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2020, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1.It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. 2.Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The 6 per cent Equalisation Levy was created as a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, outside the Income-tax Act, 1961. Because it is not a tax on income, tax treaties do not cover it, so the foreign firm gets no treaty credit at home.

  • ✗ 1. The Finance Bill, 2016 inserted a new chapter titled 'Equalisation Levy' in the Finance Bill itself (Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016); the Income-tax Act only exempted the same income under section 10 to avoid double taxation.
  • ✗ 2. The CBDT's e-commerce committee, which designed the levy, noted that as it is not charged on income, Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements do not apply and no tax credit is available in the country of residence.
  • • Since then Since then the 6 per cent levy on online advertisement has been abolished with effect from 1 April 2025 (Finance Act, 2025).

Remember · Equalisation Levy (2016): 6% on payments to non-resident online-ad providers without a PE in India; enacted in the Finance Act, not the Income-tax Act; outside DTAAs, so no foreign tax credit.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
  2. 2.The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
  3. 3.As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

The N.K. Singh FRBM Review Committee (report made public in 2017) proposed a 60 per cent general-government debt anchor, with the Centre brought down to 40 per cent by FY23 and the States at about 20 per cent. Statement 2 swaps the numbers: it is the Centre whose debt was about 49 per cent of GDP. Article 293(3) makes statement 3 correct.

  • ✓ 1. The committee recommended a glide path that brings the Centre's debt to 40 per cent of GDP by FY23 within a general-government anchor of about 60 per cent, leaving roughly 20 per cent for the States together.
  • ✗ 2. The figures are reversed. The report puts the Union government's debt at 49.4 per cent of GDP and the States' collective debt at only about 19–21 per cent.
  • ✓ 3. Article 293(3) says a State may not raise a loan without the Government of India's consent if any part of a loan made or guaranteed by the Centre is still outstanding.

Remember · FRBM Review (N.K. Singh) Committee: debt anchor 60% of GDP (Centre 40%, States 20%); fiscal deficit 2.5% by FY23. Article 293(3): indebted States need the Centre's consent to borrow.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
  2. 2.Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
  3. 3.Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 3 only

Only statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan does produce iron ore, whereas State Governments do hold the auction of mineral concessions and both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand have gold mines.

  • ✗ 1. Since the 2015 amendment of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, mineral concessions are granted by the State Governments and only through auction.
  • ✗ 2. Jharkhand has a working private gold mine at Kunderkocha in Singhbhum East district. Andhra Pradesh has a gold mining lease in Kurnool district (Jonnagiri), so both States have gold mines, even though Karnataka produces about 99% of India's gold.
  • ✓ 3. Rajasthan does have iron ore mines. In 2021-22 Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand gave about 96% of India's iron ore, and the rest came from Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.

Remember · States conduct the auction of mineral concessions (MMDR Act, 2015). Gold mines: Karnataka mainly, also Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh. Rajasthan has iron ore.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

Free public provision does not remove the cost. The resources used still have other uses, and the bill is met through the government budget, which taxes help to fund, so the burden moves from the user to the tax-paying public.

  • ✓ (c) When goods are provided publicly, they are financed through the budget and users pay nothing directly. Tax revenue is an important part of budget receipts, so taxpayers bear the cost that consumers would otherwise have paid.
  • ✗ (a) Opportunity cost is what is given up when resources are used for one purpose instead of another. Producing the commodity always uses scarce resources, so the cost cannot be zero.
  • ✗ (b) The cost is not ignored in economics. It has only moved from the consumer to someone else.
  • ✗ (d) The government pays for the commodity out of the budget, which is funded mainly by receipts such as taxes. The burden therefore falls on taxpayers, not on the government as a separate bearer.

Remember · Free to the user is not free to society: public provision shifts the cost from the consumer to taxpayers through the budget.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Microeconomics, Ch 1 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. 2.To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 2 is correct: SBI absorbed its five associate banks and Bharatiya Mahila Bank in 2017. Statement 1 is wrong because the Government's yearly capital infusion into public sector banks (PSBs) went up and down rather than rising steadily.

  • ✗ 1. The CAG's audit records infusions of ₹1,900 crore (2008-09), ₹1,200 crore (2009-10), ₹20,117 crore (2010-11), ₹12,000 crore, ₹12,517 crore, ₹14,000 crore, ₹6,990 crore (2014-15), then ₹25,000 crore in each of 2015-16 and 2016-17. The dips in between mean it was not a steady increase; the jump to ₹88,139 crore came only in 2017-18.
  • ✓ 2. With Government sanction and in consultation with the RBI, State Bank of India took over State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, Hyderabad, Mysore, Patiala and Travancore, plus Bharatiya Mahila Bank. The merger took effect on 1 April 2017.

Remember · SBI merged its five associate banks and Bharatiya Mahila Bank on 1 April 2017; recapitalisation of PSBs was uneven year to year before the 2017-18 surge.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following items:

  1. 1.Cereal grains hulled
  2. 2.Chicken eggs cooked
  3. 3.Fish processed and canned
  4. 4.Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Hulled cereal grains, cooked eggs and newspapers are on the GST exemption list, but processed and canned fish is taxed at 12%. So items 1, 2 and 4 are exempt and item 3 is not.

  • ✓ 1. 'Cereal grains hulled' (heading 1104) is in the list of goods exempt from GST in Notification 2/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
  • ✓ 2. The exemption list covers birds' eggs, in shell, fresh, preserved or cooked (heading 0407), which includes chicken eggs.
  • ✗ 3. Prepared or preserved fish (heading 1604) is in Schedule II of the GST rate notification, at 12%. Only fresh, chilled or frozen fish gets the lower rate or exemption.
  • ✓ 4. Newspapers, journals and periodicals, whether or not illustrated or containing advertising material (heading 4902), are exempt.

Remember · GST exempts unprocessed staples: hulled cereal grains, eggs, newspapers. Canned or preserved fish is taxed (12% at launch).

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. 2.Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. 3.The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 only

The amended Act (in force from 1 November 2016) expressly counts a deal as benami even when the recorded owner is unaware of it, lets the Government confiscate benami property, and provides an appeal route through an Adjudicating Authority and an Appellate Tribunal. Only statement 2 is correct.

  • ✗ 1. The definition of a benami transaction includes an arrangement where the owner of the property is not aware of, or denies knowledge of, the ownership. Lack of awareness makes it benami; it does not exempt it.
  • ✓ 2. Property held benami can be provisionally attached and then confiscated by the Government, without payment of compensation.
  • ✗ 3. Income-tax officers act as Initiating Officer, Approving Authority and Administrator, and there is an Adjudicating Authority too; appeals lie to the Appellate Tribunal, so an appellate mechanism does exist.

Remember · PBPT Act (amended 2016, effective 1 Nov 2016): 'owner unaware' still counts as benami; benami property confiscated without compensation; appeals via Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.

Sources

  • Indian Economic Service, Arthapedia: Benami Property ↗ “Benami transaction includes a transaction or an arrangement in respect of a property carried out or made in a fictitious name; or where the owner of the property is not aware of, or, denies knowledge of, such ownership … Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of compensation. An appellate mechanism has been provided under the PBPT Act in the form of Adjudicating Authority and Appellate Tribunal.”
  • PIB, Ministry of Finance (24 March 2017): Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amended Act, 2016 ↗ “the Central Government has notified specified Income-tax authorities to act as Initiating Officer, Approving Authority and Administrator in respect of benami transactions. Further, vide Notification No. SO 3288E, dated 25.10.2016, the Adjudicating Authority has been notified”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

  1. 1.It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. 2.It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. 3.It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only the first statement describes what GST does: it merged many central and state indirect taxes into one tax, so goods and services move across India as in a single market. GST is a tax reform, so claims of a sharply lower current account deficit or of overtaking China are exaggerations.

  • ✓ 1. GST amalgamated a large number of central and state taxes and cesses into one tax that applies throughout the country, with one rate for one type of goods or service.
  • ✗ 2. The current account deficit depends on trade, oil prices, capital flows and similar factors. NCERT lists GST's expected gains as more revenue, less tax evasion and one national market; it does not list a fall in the deficit.
  • ✗ 3. No official source promises that GST will enormously raise growth or let India overtake China. A tax reform can help growth only indirectly; the claim is too strong.

Remember · GST (operational 1 July 2017): one destination-based indirect tax replacing many central and state levies, meant to create 'one nation, one tax, one market'.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 5 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Indian Economic Development, Ch 3 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

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