Prelims 2024 · Q51
HardConsider the following statements:
- Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
- Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Why not the tempting option · UPSC's key is (a). A stricter legal reading objects that a default would not extinguish holders' claims — the US Constitution (14th Amendment, section 4) says the validity of the public debt shall not be questioned — so some read Statement-I as incorrect and pick (d). But 'exercise their claims to receive payment' is about actually being paid, which a default by definition prevents, and the absence of any hard asset behind the debt (Statement-II) is precisely why holders would have no recourse. In the exam, read such statements as economics, not as a point of law.
UPSC's key accepts both statements, with Statement-II explaining Statement-I. US Treasury securities carry no collateral; they rest on the full faith and credit of the US government, a promise to pay. A default is a failure to honour that promise, and because nothing but the promise stands behind the bonds, holders would have no asset to claim against and could not get paid.
- ✓ Statement-I A default means the government does not make the payments due. Holders' claims rest on the government's promise alone, so when the promise fails there is no collateral to seize and no asset to realise: the claim to payment exists but cannot be exercised.
- ✓ Statement-II The US Treasury states that all its marketable securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government — a pledge of the government's word (reinforced by the constitutional rule that the validity of the public debt 'shall not be questioned'), not of specific assets. That is exactly why Statement-I follows: with no hard asset behind the debt, a default leaves holders with nothing to enforce against.
Remember · US Treasury debt is unsecured: it rests on the government's full faith and credit, not on collateral. That is why a default would leave holders unable to collect — there is no hard-asset fallback.
Sources
- US Treasury, TreasuryDirect: About Treasury Marketable Securities ↗ “The federal government finances its operation in part by selling various types of securities. All these securities are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.”
- US National Archives, Constitution of the United States: Amendment XIV, section 4 ↗ “The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned.”
Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2024, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·