Read the passage (परिच्छेद—7) — this item is based on it
वास्तव में, मेरा मानना है कि इंग्लैंड में निर्धनतम व्यक्ति को भी एक वैसा ही जीवन जीना है जैसा कि महानतम व्यक्ति को, और इसलिए सच में, मैं मानता हूँ कि यह स्पष्ट है कि हर उस व्यक्ति को, जिसे सरकार के अधीन रहना है, सबसे पहले अपनी सहमति से स्वयं को सरकार के अधीन कर देना चाहिए, और मेरा यह अवश्य मानना है कि इंग्लैंड का निर्धनतम व्यक्ति, सही अर्थ में ऐसी सरकार से कतई बंधा हुआ नहीं है जिसके अधीन स्वयं को करने में उसकी कोई राय नहीं रही हो।
उपर्युक्त कथन किसके समर्थन में तर्क प्रस्तुत करता है?
Read this question in English
The above statement argues for
(a) distribution of wealth equally to all · (b) rule according to the consent of the governed · (c) rule of the poor · (d) expropriation of the rich
उत्तर और व्याख्या · explanation in English
Answer: (b) शासितों की सहमति के अनुसार शासन
The speaker says every man, even the poorest, must first consent to a government before being bound by it, and is not bound by a government in which he had no voice. This argues for rule according to the consent of the governed.
- ✗ (a) The rich and the poor are mentioned only to say that both have a life to live; sharing out wealth is not proposed.
- ✓ (b) Every man 'ought first by his own consent to put himself under the government' — government must rest on the consent of the governed.
- ✗ (c) The speaker wants the poorest to have a voice, not to rule over others.
- ✗ (d) Taking property from the rich is not suggested anywhere.
Remember · Stay with the claim the speaker actually makes ('consent', 'voice'); options that go further, like rule of the poor, distort it.
Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·