Minimalist IAS
International relations & current affairs

Prelims · International relations & current affairs · 60 questions

Government schemes & initiatives

Every UPSC Prelims question on this topic, 2016–2026, newest first. Tap an option to check yourself; the answer and explanation open below it.

Government schemes & initiatives questions per year: 2016: 5, 2017: 6, 2018: 3, 2019: 1, 2020: 3, 2021: 1, 2022: 2, 2023: 3, 2024: 3, 2025: 2, 2026: 2 Asked in 11 of 11 years · most in 2017 (6)

UPSC syllabus: “Current events of national and international importance.” See the full syllabus →

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. 2.Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Aadhaar Act, 2016 settles both. Section 9 says an Aadhaar number is not proof of citizenship or domicile, and Section 23(2)(g) empowers the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to omit and deactivate Aadhaar numbers as specified by regulations.

  • ✗ 1. Aadhaar is a proof of identity (and, for residents, of address), but Section 9 expressly says it confers no right of, and is no proof of, citizenship or domicile.
  • ✗ 2. One of UIDAI's statutory functions is 'omitting and deactivating of an Aadhaar number', for example where it was obtained fraudulently, under the manner laid down in its regulations.

Remember · Aadhaar Act, 2016: any resident (182 days in the preceding year) can enrol; the number is identity proof, not citizenship proof (Sec 9); UIDAI can omit or deactivate numbers (Sec 23(2)(g)).

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?

  1. 1.It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. 2.Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

An open API is a published, standard way for any software to talk to a service. Because UIDAI publishes its authentication APIs, any device that can build a request in that format (phone, PoS terminal, kiosk, PC) can use Aadhaar, and the service accepts biometric checks by fingerprint or iris as well as OTP.

  • ✓ 1. UIDAI chose an API-based approach so that demographic and OTP authentication can start from any device able to create a request as per its API specifications; biometric capture only adds the need for a certified sensor.
  • ✓ 2. UIDAI verifies a person online by matching the Aadhaar number with demographic data, OTP or biometrics, and the biometrics accepted include fingerprints, iris and face.

Remember · Aadhaar authentication = online yes/no check against UIDAI's CIDR, using demographic data, OTP, fingerprint, iris or face, through published (open) APIs.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. 2.As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. 3.In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 only

Under Section 23 of the RTE Act, teacher qualifications are set by an academic authority notified by the Central Government, and that authority is the national body NCTE, not any State council. NCTE's 2010 notification made passing a Teacher Eligibility Test, held as per NCTE guidelines, part of the minimum qualification. Most teacher education institutions are privately run, not State-run.

  • ✗ 1. The Centre notified the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) as the academic authority under Section 23; there is no State Council that fixes these minimum qualifications.
  • ✓ 2. NCTE's notification of 23 August 2010 requires a teacher for Classes I–VIII to pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET), conducted by the appropriate government in line with NCTE's guidelines.
  • ✗ 3. NCTE recognises government, government-aided and self-financing institutions, and the self-financing (private) ones form the great majority; the Justice Verma Commission (2012) put the private share above 90%.

Remember · RTE Act s.23: NCTE (statutory body under the NCTE Act, 1993) is the academic authority for teacher qualifications; TET is mandatory for Classes I–VIII teachers.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  2. 2.The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 folded the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and several older food orders into one law. FSSAI is an independent statutory authority with its own Chairperson, not a body under the Director General of Health Services.

  • ✓ 1. The 2006 Act lists the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 among the laws it repeals, along with orders such as the Fruit Products Order, 1955. This gave India a single law and a single authority for food safety.
  • ✗ 2. FSSAI is a statutory authority created by the 2006 Act. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is only its administrative ministry, and the FSSAI Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, so it does not sit under the Director General of Health Services.

Remember · FSS Act, 2006 replaced the PFA Act, 1954 and created FSSAI, a statutory authority whose administrative ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

  1. 1.Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. 2.Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. 3.Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 3 only

Only statement 3 is an aim of Digital India, which is about digital infrastructure, on-demand services and digital empowerment of citizens, including broadband to villages and Wi-Fi at public places. Building Indian rivals to Chinese Internet firms or drawing foreign firms' data centres to India is not among its stated aims.

  • ✗ 1. The programme's stated vision is a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy, built on three areas: digital infrastructure as a utility, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens. Creating national Internet companies is not one of them.
  • ✗ 2. Digital India's official aims do not include a policy framework to pull overseas companies' data centres into India. Its infrastructure work is about broadband, mobile coverage and public access.
  • ✓ 3. BharatNet, the backbone of Digital India, aims to take Internet services to every corner of the country, and Digital India also covers public Wi-Fi: BSNL set up hotspots at tourist places such as the Ganga Ghats at Varanasi and the Taj Mahal, and the plan includes Wi-Fi in all universities and broadband in all schools.

Remember · Digital India (launched 1 July 2015) has three vision areas: digital infrastructure as a utility, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. 2.It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  3. 3.It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, and statement 1 is wrong. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Its training centres teach soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy, and its Recognition of Prior Learning part brings the unregulated workforce into the NSQF.

  • ✗ 1. PMKVY, launched in 2015, is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship as its flagship scheme.
  • ✓ 2. The PMKVY 2016-20 guidelines say that, apart from NSQF-based training, training centres also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  • ✓ 3. The same guidelines say the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce with the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF).

Remember · PMKVY = flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), launched in 2015; short-term training plus Recognition of Prior Learning, both linked to the NSQF.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

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