On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- 1.Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
- 2.Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc. reinforces power.
- 3.Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) 3 only
Inequality can be measured, but the economic power behind it is 'invisible and not measurable', while its effects are seen everywhere. So power can be studied mainly through what it does. The passage calls power the organising principle, not the only cause, and the causation runs from power to inequality.
- ✗ 1. 'Organising principle' is not 'the only reason'; the word 'only' goes beyond the passage.
- ✗ 2. The passage says power 'drives' inequality; it does not say inequality in turn strengthens power — this reverses the direction.
- ✓ 3. Power is 'not measurable', yet 'its effects are seen in a pervasive manner' — like gravity, it is known by its effects.
Remember · Watch the direction of cause and effect: 'A drives B' does not support 'B reinforces A'. Words like 'only' usually overreach.
Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper II (2019, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). ·