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The Week in One Page · Week 43

UPSC current affairs, 19–25 October 2026

The 10 stories that mattered most, ranked — each with the Prelims fact, the Mains angle and the questions UPSC has already asked on it.

By Shivam Singh

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Week 43 on one page

19–25 Oct 2026
  1. 1 SC: citizens can prosecute false affidavits GS2 · RP Act S.125A · Asked before
  2. 2 CEC removal: the Article 324(5) route GS2 · Art 324(5) · Art 124(4) · Asked before
  3. 3 UNEP: 1.5°C without overshoot now out GS3 · Emissions Gap Report · Asked before
  4. 4 CBD COP17 runs first global KMGBF review GS3 · KMGBF · 23 targets · Asked before
  5. 5 SC: bail when pre-trial detention drags GS2 · Art 21 · BNSS S.479 · Asked before
  6. 6 India–New Zealand FTA comes into force GS2 · FTAs after RCEP · Asked before
  7. 7 Cyclone watch on the Andhra coast GS1 · Post-monsoon cyclones · Asked before
  8. 8 Ladakh: hill councils recast, new districts GS2 · Art 240 · LAHDC · Asked before
  9. 9 Ethanol tender shifts feedstock to grain GS3 · EBP · E20 · Asked before
  10. 10 DPDP breach-report rule not in force yet GS3 · DPDP Act S.8(6) · Asked before

Most important first. Tap a story for its Prelims fact, Mains angle and the past UPSC questions on it.

Story by story

1 GS2 · Polity SC: citizens can prosecute false affidavits

The Supreme Court (Justices Datta and Nagu, judgment reported 19 October) held that any private individual, not only a public servant, can file a criminal complaint under Section 125A of the RP Act, 1951 against a candidate who gives false information or conceals facts in nomination papers.

For Prelims (RP Act S.125A):
Section 33A of the RP Act, 1951 requires candidates to disclose pending cases and convictions. Section 125A makes false information or concealment in the nomination affidavit punishable with up to six months' imprisonment, a fine, or both.
For Mains:
Use in GS2 answers on electoral reforms and criminalisation of politics: disclosure works only when it is enforced, and the ruling lets any citizen enforce it. Mention the risk of vexatious complaints for balance.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2017 · Q57 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
  • Mains 2025 · GS Paper II Discuss the ‘corrupt practices’ for the purpose of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Analyze whether the increase in the assets of the…

Full story: Daily Brief, 24 Oct →

2 GS2 · Polity CEC removal: the Article 324(5) route

Congress announced, on behalf of the INDIA bloc, a 'public impeachment proceeding' against Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar on 30 October over the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, reopening the question of how a CEC can be removed.

For Prelims (Art 324(5) · Art 124(4)):
Under Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed only in the manner and on the grounds of a Supreme Court judge (Article 124(4)). Other Election Commissioners can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation.
For Mains:
Use in GS2 answers on the independence of constitutional bodies: security of tenure shields the CEC, while the appointment process under the CEC Act, 2023 remains debated.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2017 · Q90 Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

Full story: Daily Brief, 25 Oct →

3 GS3 · Env UNEP: 1.5°C without overshoot now out

UNEP's 17th Emissions Gap Report, 'The Point of Return' (21 October), says limiting warming to 1.5°C without significant overshoot is no longer possible. Full implementation of current pledges points to about 2.6°C.

For Prelims (Emissions Gap Report):
The Paris Agreement (2015) aims to hold warming well below 2°C and to pursue 1.5°C; countries pledge cuts through NDCs. UNEP's annual Emissions Gap Report measures the gap between pledges and those goals.
For Mains:
Use in GS3 answers on climate negotiations and India's commitments: India's low per-capita emissions support its equity and CBDR-RC arguments.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2016 · Q97 With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? The Agreement was signed by…
  • Prelims 2022 · Q41 X-Ray · Core #4 "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

Full story: Daily Brief, 23 Oct →

4 GS3 · Env CBD COP17 runs first global KMGBF review

COP17 to the Convention on Biological Diversity in Yerevan, Armenia (19–30 October) is holding the first global review of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Parties themselves rate fewer than half of their national targets as on track.

For Prelims (KMGBF · 23 targets):
The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework was adopted at CBD COP15 in Montreal in December 2022. It has 23 targets for 2030, including '30x30': conserving 30% of land and 30% of sea.
For Mains:
Use in GS3 answers on biodiversity governance, conservation finance and benefit-sharing; India's updated NBSAP and the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 show domestic alignment.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2023 · Q79 Consider the following statements: In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya…

Full story: Daily Brief, 23 Oct →

5 GS2 · Polity SC: bail when pre-trial detention drags

In mid-October the Supreme Court (Justices Datta and Nagu) granted bail to former Rajasthan minister Mahesh Joshi in the ACB's Jal Jeevan Mission tender case, holding that prolonged pre-trial detention cannot become punishment without trial.

For Prelims (Art 21 · BNSS S.479):
Section 479 of the BNSS: an undertrial who has served half the maximum sentence for the offence must be released on bail, and a first-time offender after one-third. It does not apply to offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.
For Mains:
Use in GS2 answers on criminal-justice reform and judicial delays: with nearly three in four prisoners undertrials, bail delay is a structural injustice under Article 21, not an individual one.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2021 · Q82 With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such…
  • Prelims 2020 · Q9 In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? Person with an annual income of less…

Full story: Daily Brief, 23 Oct →

6 GS2 · IR India–New Zealand FTA comes into force

The India–New Zealand FTA, signed on 27 April, took effect on 20 October, giving all Indian exports duty-free access to New Zealand.

For Prelims (FTAs after RCEP):
India left the RCEP talks in 2019 and has since signed deals with developed economies: the ECTA with Australia (2022), the TEPA with EFTA (2024) and the CETA with the UK (2025).
For Mains:
Use in GS2 and GS3 answers on India's trade strategy after RCEP and on export-led manufacturing.

UPSC has asked about this before

Full story: Daily Brief, 21 Oct →

7 GS1 · Geography Cyclone watch on the Andhra coast

A deep depression over the Bay of Bengal is forecast to cross the Andhra Pradesh coast between Bapatla and Visakhapatnam around the forenoon of 28 October as a very severe cyclonic storm. Odisha cancelled officials' leave and deployed NDRF and ODRAF teams.

For Prelims (Post-monsoon cyclones):
The north Indian Ocean has two cyclone seasons: April–June and October–December. The Bay of Bengal sees far more cyclones than the Arabian Sea, and IMD New Delhi is the regional centre that names them.
For Mains:
Use in GS1 answers on tropical cyclones and in GS3 disaster-management answers on early warning and evacuation.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2015 · Q5 In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

Full story: Daily Brief, 24 Oct →

8 GS2 · Polity Ladakh: hill councils recast, new districts

The President promulgated the LAHDC (Amendment) Regulation, 2026, paving the way for hill councils in all eight of Ladakh's districts, as an MHA draft proposes a UT-wide elected body. Ladakh's groups still seek Statehood or Sixth Schedule protection.

For Prelims (Art 240 · LAHDC):
Ladakh is a Union Territory without a legislature, so the President can make regulations for it under Article 240. The Sixth Schedule, by contrast, sets up autonomous district councils in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
For Mains:
Use in GS2 answers on UT governance, decentralisation and tribal autonomy: statutory hill councils versus constitutional Sixth Schedule protection.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2022 · Q73 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the…

Full story: Daily Brief, 21 Oct →

9 GS3 · Economy Ethanol tender shifts feedstock to grain

Oil marketing companies' ethanol tender for 2026-27 excludes ethanol from sugarcane juice, sugar, sugar syrup and B-heavy molasses after the Centre set sugar diversion for ethanol to zero, leaving C-heavy molasses and grains (maize, FCI rice, damaged grains) to supply it.

For Prelims (EBP · E20):
The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 (amended 2022) allows ethanol from sugarcane juice, molasses, damaged food grains and surplus grains, and brought the 20% blending (E20) target forward to 2025-26.
For Mains:
Use in GS3 answers on energy security and the food–fuel trade-off: feedstock choices tie fuel policy to maize and sugar markets.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2020 · Q84 According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? Cassava

Full story: Daily Brief, 19 Oct →

10 GS3 · S&T DPDP breach-report rule not in force yet

A CBFC film-certification portal leak and an SBI disclosure of 3,897 customer records on the dark web came to light within days, while the DPDP Act's breach-notification duty takes legal effect only on 13 May 2027.

For Prelims (DPDP Act S.8(6)):
Section 8(6) of the DPDP Act, 2023 requires a data fiduciary to report a personal-data breach to the Data Protection Board and to each affected person. Separately, CERT-In's 2022 directions require cyber incidents to be reported within 6 hours.
For Mains:
Use in GS3 answers on cyber security and GS2 answers on privacy (Puttaswamy, 2017): a right needs an enforceable breach duty, not just a law on paper.

UPSC has asked about this before

  • Prelims 2017 · Q85 In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? Service providers
  • Prelims 2024 · Q76 Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Full story: Daily Brief, 25 Oct →

Test yourself

  1. The CEC can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge; other Election Commissioners only on the CEC's recommendation.
  2. RP Act S.125A: false information in a nomination affidavit can mean up to 6 months' jail, a fine, or both.
  3. The Kunming-Montreal framework (CBD COP15, 2022) has 23 targets for 2030, including '30x30'.
  4. BNSS S.479: an undertrial who has served half the maximum sentence must get bail; a first-time offender after one-third.
  5. UNEP's Emissions Gap Report compares countries' pledges with the cuts needed for the Paris goals.
True or false? “The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.”

False. Only like an SC judge: an address by each House by special majority (Art 324(5), 124(4)).

True or false? “Under India's National Policy on Biofuels, damaged food grains unfit for human consumption can be used to make ethanol.”

True. The 2018 policy widened feedstocks to include them.

Take this week's full Revision Quiz →

Mains question of the week · GS Paper 2 · 250 words

Mandatory disclosure of candidates' criminal records, assets and liabilities was meant to enable informed voting. Examine how far the law enforces truthful disclosure, and suggest how voters can become an effective check.

Use: S.33A and S.125A of the RP Act, ADR (2002) and PUCL (2003), the October 2026 ruling allowing private complaints under S.125A, and the risk of vexatious cases.

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