25 questions UPSC asked between 2017 and 2026, 30 minutes, negative marking — your score as soon as you submit.
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30 min
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50
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Polity & governance has 6 sets of about 25 questions — together, every question UPSC has asked on it since 2016. This is set 2; when you finish, the next one is a tap away.
1Answer in any order: skip, mark for review and come back from the question palette.
2Submit when you're done, or the 30 min timer submits for you. Close the page and come back any time — your answers are saved in this browser.
3See your score straight away. Sign up free (or log in) for the full report and every question with UPSC's answer and our explanation.
Marking, as in the exam: +2 for a correct answer, −0.66 for a wrong one, 0 if you leave it.
Questions from the latest paper are scored against UPSC's provisional answer key (the final key comes out after the final result).
What's in this test
Topic
Questions
Easy
Medium
Hard
Parliament & the Union executive
5
2
3
0
Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
4
3
1
0
Making of the Constitution, Preamble & features
4
1
3
0
Constitutional, statutory & regulatory bodies
3
1
1
1
Federalism, states & centre–state relations
3
1
2
0
Judiciary
3
2
1
0
Elections, rights issues & governance
2
1
1
0
Panchayati Raj & local government
1
1
0
0
Difficulty is the Vault's own rating of each question; subjects and topics follow the official syllabus.
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About this test
How is this test marked?
As in UPSC's GS Paper I: 2 marks for each correct answer and a third of that (0.66) deducted for each wrong one. A question you leave scores nothing. The maximum here is 50.
How long do I get?
30 minutes — the exam's pace (100 questions in 2 hours) for 25 questions. When the time runs out, your answers are submitted as they stand.
How are the sets made?
Every question UPSC has asked on Polity & governance since 2016 is in one of the 6 sets of about 25, each mixing topics and years. Questions UPSC dropped from evaluation are left out. Take them in any order; the sets page shows which you've done.
Is it free?
Yes. Anyone can take the test and see their score straight away. A free sign-up shows the full report and every question with UPSC's answer and an explanation.
‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
Question 2 of 25 · Prelims 2026, Q62
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1.A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2.The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3.Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Question 3 of 25 · Prelims 2025, Q3
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization
Some of its functions
It works under
I.
Directorate of Enforcement
Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018
Internal Security Division–I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II.
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III.
Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Question 4 of 25 · Prelims 2025, Q56
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I.the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II.the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 5 of 25 · Prelims 2025, Q58
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I.List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II.Extent of the executive power of a State
III.Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
Question 6 of 25 · Prelims 2025, Q87
Consider the following statements:
I.On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II.According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III.The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Question 7 of 25 · Prelims 2024, Q83
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
Question 8 of 25 · Prelims 2024, Q94
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2.A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3.A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 9 of 25 · Prelims 2023, Q77
Consider the following statements:
1.According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2.The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3.According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Question 10 of 25 · Prelims 2022, Q15
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1.To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2.To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3.To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Question 11 of 25 · Prelims 2022, Q17
Consider the following statements:
1.Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2.According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 12 of 25 · Prelims 2022, Q73
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
Question 13 of 25 · Prelims 2021, Q79
‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
Question 14 of 25 · Prelims 2021, Q88
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1.Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2.A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 15 of 25 · Prelims 2021, Q93
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
Question 16 of 25 · Prelims 2020, Q8
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1.Preamble
2.Directive Principles of State Policy
3.Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Question 17 of 25 · Prelims 2020, Q20
Consider the following statements:
1.The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2.The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3.There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 18 of 25 · Prelims 2019, Q81
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1.No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2.An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 19 of 25 · Prelims 2018, Q41
Consider the following statements:
1.No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2.The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 20 of 25 · Prelims 2018, Q45
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?
1.Limitation of powers
2.Equality before law
3.People's responsibility to the Government
4.Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Question 21 of 25 · Prelims 2017, Q1
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1.A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2.Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 22 of 25 · Prelims 2017, Q7
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Question 23 of 25 · Prelims 2017, Q16
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
Question 24 of 25 · Prelims 2017, Q42
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Question 25 of 25 · Prelims 2017, Q90
Consider the following statements:
1.The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2.Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3.Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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