Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

Polity & governance

Prelims · Polity & governance · 49 questions

Parliament & the Union executive

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Prelims 2026 · Q58

Easy Provisional key

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1.Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2.Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3.No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Statements 1 and 2 swap the two types: a starred question, marked with an asterisk, seeks an oral answer, while an unstarred question seeks a written one. Statement 3 is right because an unstarred question is not called for oral answer, so no supplementary can follow.

✗ 1. Unstarred questions are meant for a written reply; it is starred questions that seek an oral answer.
✗ 2. Starred questions, marked with an asterisk, are the ones for which the Member wants an oral answer.
✓ 3. Written answers are laid on the Table, and because unstarred questions are not called for oral answer, no supplementary question can be asked on them.

Remember · Starred = asterisk, oral answer, supplementaries allowed. Unstarred = written answer laid on the Table, no supplementaries.

Sources

Lok Sabha (Digital Sansad): Frequently Asked Questions, starred questions ↗ “Starred: A Member who desires an oral answer to his question is required to distinguish it by an asterix. … Unstarred: These do not carry the asterix mark and are meant for obtaining written reply.”
Practice and Procedure of Parliament, Lok Sabha Secretariat, Chapter I (Questions) ↗ “called for oral answers in the House, no supplementary question can be asked thereon.”

Question and answer: UPSC's provisional GS Paper I (2026, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2026 · Q59

Medium Provisional key

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1.Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2.Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3.No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4.Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

The Committee has 30 members: twenty elected by the Lok Sabha and ten nominated by the Rajya Sabha. Its Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker, no Minister can be a member, and members serve for a term not exceeding one year. Every statement gets at least one of these facts wrong.

✗ 1. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among the Committee's members, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; Rajya Sabha members are nominated by their House.
✗ 2. The numbers are reversed: twenty members come from the Lok Sabha and ten from the Rajya Sabha.
✗ 3. A Minister cannot be a member at all; the rule makes no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
✗ 4. The term of members shall not exceed one year, not a fixed two years.

Remember · SC/ST Welfare Committee (Rule 331B): 30 members, 20 Lok Sabha + 10 Rajya Sabha; Speaker appoints the Chair; no Minister can serve; term up to one year.

Sources

Practice and Procedure of Parliament, Lok Sabha Secretariat, Chapter III (Parliamentary Committees): composition ↗ “It consists of 30 members, twenty from Lok Sabha elected from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and ten from Rajya Sabha … A Minister cannot be a member of the Committee and if a member, after election to the Committee, is appointed to such an office, she/he ceases to be a member of the Committee. … The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the Committee. The term of office of members of the Committee shall not exceed one year.”

Question and answer: UPSC's provisional GS Paper I (2026, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2026 · Q62

Medium Provisional key

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1.A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2.The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3.Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 2 only

Section 173 of the BNSS allows information about a cognizable offence to be given at any police station, whatever the place of the offence, orally or electronically. A preliminary enquiry is possible only with prior permission of an officer of at least Deputy Superintendent rank. Statement 1 goes wrong by adding non-cognizable offences, and statement 3 wrongly makes electronic filing compulsory.

✗ 1. Section 173(1) speaks of information relating to a cognizable offence, given irrespective of the area where the offence was committed. It does not extend this to non-cognizable offences, so the statement's wording is incorrect.
✓ 2. Under section 173(3), for a cognizable offence punishable with three years or more but less than seven, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry.
✗ 3. Information may be given orally or by electronic communication; the informant is not obliged to file electronically.

Remember · BNSS s.173: information on a cognizable offence can be given at any police station (Zero FIR), orally or electronically; preliminary enquiry only for 3–7 year offences, with DSP-level permission.

Sources

PIB: CrPC and BNSS, A Comparative Analysis (text of BNSS section 173(1)) ↗ “Every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence, irrespective of the area where the offence is committed, may be given orally or by electronic communication to an officer in charge of a police station … the officer in charge of the police station may with the prior permission from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, considering the nature and gravity of the offence,— (i) proceed to conduct preliminary enquiry”

Question and answer: UPSC's provisional GS Paper I (2026, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2026 · Q63

Medium Provisional key

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1

Only row 3 is fully correct. The CEIB and the SFIO have the functions stated, but the CEIB works under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance (not Home Affairs), and the SFIO is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (not Finance). The CBI is under the Department of Personnel and Training.

✗ 1. CEIB coordinates economic intelligence and enforcement agencies, but it is a subordinate organisation of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
✗ 2. The SFIO investigates and prosecutes complex corporate frauds, but it functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
✓ 3. The CBI functions under the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, and describes its role as preserving values in public life and ensuring the health of the national economy.

Remember · CEIB: Dept of Revenue (Finance). SFIO: Ministry of Corporate Affairs. CBI: DoPT (Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions). Match the body, then check the ministry.

Sources

Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: About the Department (subordinate organisations) ↗ “for the Subordinate Organizations, namely viz : Income Tax Department Customs Department Goods and Service Tax Department Directorate of Enforcement Central Bureau of Narcotics Chief Controller of Factories (GOAW Neemuch and Ghazipur) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau”
Department of Revenue: Central Economic Intelligence Bureau ↗ “The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) was set up in September 1985 for coordinating and strengthening the intelligence gathering activities and enforcement action by various agencies concerned with investigation into economic offences and enforcement of economic laws.”
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (sfio.gov.in), homepage ↗ “Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) under Ministry of Corporate Affairs”
Central Bureau of Investigation: About Us ↗ “The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), functioning under Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India, is the premier investigating police agency in India. … It is an elite force playing a major role in preservation of values in public life and in ensuring the health of the national economy.”

Question and answer: UPSC's provisional GS Paper I (2026, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

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