Minimalist IAS
Economy & social development

Prelims · Economy & social development · 53 questions

External sector & international economic bodies

Every UPSC Prelims question on this topic, 2016–2026, newest first. Tap an option to check yourself; the answer and explanation open below it.

External sector & international economic bodies questions per year: 2016: 3, 2017: 4, 2018: 1, 2019: 3, 2020: 6, 2021: 2, 2022: 3, 2023: 2, 2024: 1, 2025: 1, 2026: 0 Asked in 10 of 11 years · most in 2020 (6)

UPSC syllabus: “Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.” See the full syllabus →

Showing 31–53 of 53, newest first.

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1.It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. 2.Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The 6 per cent Equalisation Levy was created as a separate chapter of the Finance Act, 2016, outside the Income-tax Act, 1961. Because it is not a tax on income, tax treaties do not cover it, so the foreign firm gets no treaty credit at home.

  • ✗ 1. The Finance Bill, 2016 inserted a new chapter titled 'Equalisation Levy' in the Finance Bill itself (Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016); the Income-tax Act only exempted the same income under section 10 to avoid double taxation.
  • ✗ 2. The CBDT's e-commerce committee, which designed the levy, noted that as it is not charged on income, Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements do not apply and no tax credit is available in the country of residence.
  • • Since then Since then the 6 per cent levy on online advertisement has been abolished with effect from 1 April 2025 (Finance Act, 2025).

Remember · Equalisation Levy (2016): 6% on payments to non-resident online-ad providers without a PE in India; enacted in the Finance Act, not the Income-tax Act; outside DTAAs, so no foreign tax credit.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. 2.The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 only

India has for years imported more edible oil than it produces, meeting well over half of its needs from abroad, mainly palm and soybean oil. Imports are far from duty-free: the Budget of February 2018 raised customs duty on crude edible vegetable oils from 12.5 to 30 per cent.

  • ✓ 1. In the years before 2018 imports supplied roughly 60 per cent of domestic edible-oil consumption, so the quantity imported exceeded domestic output; the government's oil-palm mission itself cites the heavy import burden.
  • ✗ 2. Customs duty is levied and adjusted from time to time to protect oilseed farmers; the 2018-19 Budget raised it to 30 per cent on crude and 35 per cent on refined edible vegetable oils.

Remember · India is among the world's largest importers of edible oil (mainly palm and soybean); it imports more than it produces, and uses customs duty to balance farmers' and consumers' interests.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) WTO

India passed the Geographical Indications Act, 1999 as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Protection of geographical indications is required by the WTO's TRIPS Agreement (Articles 22 to 24), so the law was needed to meet that obligation.

  • ✓ (d) TRIPS, the WTO's Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights, covers geographical indications in Articles 22 to 24. India enacted its GI Act in 1999 as a WTO member; it came into force on 15 September 2003.
  • ✗ (a) The ILO (International Labour Organization) deals with labour standards, not intellectual property.
  • ✗ (b) The IMF deals with monetary cooperation and balance-of-payments support, not intellectual property such as GI tags.

Remember · GI Act, 1999 (in force 15 September 2003) follows the WTO's TRIPS Agreement, Articles 22-24.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following countries:

  1. 1.Australia
  2. 2.Canada
  3. 3.China
  4. 4.India
  5. 5.Japan
  6. 6.USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

At the time of the exam, ASEAN had free trade agreements with Australia (with New Zealand), China, Japan, South Korea and India. Canada and the USA were not among ASEAN's free-trade partners, so the correct set is 1, 3, 4 and 5.

  • ✓ 1. Australia (together with New Zealand) is a party to the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand Free Trade Area, AANZFTA.
  • ✗ 2. Canada had no free trade agreement with ASEAN in the list of ASEAN's FTAs published in 2018.
  • ✓ 3. China is a partner in the ASEAN-China Free Trade Area, ACFTA.
  • ✓ 4. India is a partner in the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area, AIFTA.
  • ✓ 5. Japan is a partner in the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership, AJCEP.
  • ✗ 6. The USA does not appear in ASEAN's list of free trade agreements with dialogue partners.

Remember · ASEAN's FTA partners (as in 2018): China, Japan, South Korea, India, and Australia-New Zealand. Not Canada, not the USA.

Sources

  • ASEAN Secretariat, Free Trade Agreements (page as archived in 2018) ↗ · reference work “2. ASEAN- Australia- New Zealand Free Trade Area (AANZFTA) : A Region-to-Region Economic Engagement 3. ASEAN-China Free Trade Area (ACFTA) : Building Strong Economic Partnerships … 4. ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP) : Building Strong Economic Partnerships 5. ASEAN-Korea free Trade Area (AKFTA) : Building Strong Economic Partnerships 6. ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA)”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2018, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Developing solar power production in our country

Under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, some solar projects had to use Indian-made solar cells and modules. These Domestic Content Requirements (DCR) were challenged by the United States at the WTO, which is why the term was in the news before 2017.

  • ✓ (a) In 2013 the US sought WTO consultations on India's domestic content requirements for solar cells and modules under the National Solar Mission; the panel found the DCR measures gave imported cells and modules less favourable treatment.
  • ✗ (b) Licensing of foreign TV channels is governed by uplinking and downlinking guidelines, not by a 'domestic content requirement'.
  • ✗ (d) Campuses of foreign universities are a question of education regulation; the DCR debate concerned locally made solar equipment.

Remember · Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) = mandatory use of Indian-made solar cells and modules under the National Solar Mission; the US won the WTO case (DS456) against it.

Sources

  • WTO, DS456: India — Certain Measures Relating to Solar Cells and Solar Modules ↗ “the United States requested consultations with India concerning certain measures of India relating to domestic content requirements under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (“NSM”) for solar cells and solar modules. … the Panel found that the discrimination relating to solar cells and modules under the DCR measures is not covered by the government procurement derogation in Article III:8(a) of the GATT 1994.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. 2.Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The National IPR Policy approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2016 explicitly reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement, and makes the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) the nodal department for IPRs in India. Both statements are correct.

  • ✓ 1. The policy notes India's TRIPS-compliant legal framework and reiterates its commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement while using the flexibilities they allow.
  • ✓ 2. DIPP was named the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs, monitoring action by other ministries.
  • • Since then Since January 2019, DIPP has been renamed the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which continues as the nodal department for IPR.

Remember · National IPR Policy (May 2016): slogan 'Creative India; Innovative India'; TRIPS and Doha commitment reiterated; DIPP (now DPIIT) nodal department.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a G20 initiative, backed by the World Bank, that helps governments prepare and structure infrastructure projects so that private and institutional money can be attracted. It is not an ASEAN, OECD or UNCTAD body.

  • ✓ (b) The GIF is a collaboration platform that gives funding and advisory support to governments and multilateral development banks to structure bankable infrastructure projects, including PPPs, in emerging markets, in order to mobilise private capital.
  • ✗ (a) It is a global G20 initiative, not an ASEAN scheme. Its funding comes from governments (Australia, Canada, China, Denmark, Germany, Japan, Singapore, the United States) and the World Bank, not from Asian Development Bank credit.
  • ✗ (c) Its platform brings together governments, multilateral development banks and the private sector; it is not a group of the world's major banks working with the OECD.
  • ✗ (d) UNCTAD is not among its funders, which are the governments named above and the World Bank.

Remember · GIF: a World Bank-backed G20 initiative that prepares bankable, complex infrastructure and PPP projects to mobilise private capital.

Sources

  • World Bank: Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF), programme page ↗ “It provides funding and advisory support to governments and multilateral development banks on how to select, design, structure, and bring to market high-quality, sustainable, and bankable infrastructure projects in emerging markets. … Through our collaboration platform that brings together governments, multilateral development banks, and the private sector, we deliver sustainable, quality solutions to clients”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

  1. 1.Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. 2.Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. 3.FDI inflows increased.
  4. 4.India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

After 1991 India's exports, FDI inflows and foreign exchange reserves all rose sharply, while agriculture's share in GDP kept falling as industry and services grew faster. So statements 2, 3 and 4 are true and 1 is false.

  • ✗ 1. The share of agriculture in GDP was on a decline, even though the workforce dependent on farming did not fall much. It did not increase.
  • ✓ 2. India's share in world merchandise exports rose from 0.5 per cent in 1990 to 0.8 per cent in 2003, according to the Economic Survey 2005-06.
  • ✓ 3. Opening the economy led to a rapid increase in foreign direct investment (FDI) and foreign institutional investment.
  • ✓ 4. Foreign exchange reserves rose from about US $ 6 billion in 1990-91 to about US $ 646 billion in 2023-24, a very large increase.

Remember · Post-1991 India: agriculture's share in GDP fell, while exports, FDI and forex reserves rose sharply.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 11 Indian Economic Development, Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 11 Indian Economic Development, Ch 5 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) European Union

BTIA is the India–European Union Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement, a free trade deal whose negotiations the two sides launched in 2007. The other three bodies named have no negotiation called BTIA with India.

  • ✓ (a) The EU and India launched the BTIA negotiations in 2007 to widen trade in goods and services, investment and access to public procurement.
  • ✗ (b) The Gulf Cooperation Council is a different trading partner. The name BTIA belongs to the India–EU negotiation, not to any GCC talks.
  • ✗ (c) The OECD is a forum for policy coordination among its member countries; India is not a member and does not negotiate a BTIA with it.
  • ✗ (d) The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is a political, security and economic grouping. It is not a partner in a trade and investment agreement of this kind.
  • • Since then The EU trade website now shows separate tracks: a Free Trade Agreement, which the EU and India concluded on 27 January 2026, and an Investment Protection Agreement and a Geographical Indications Agreement, both still being negotiated.

Remember · BTIA = Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement between India and the European Union, negotiations begun in 2007.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. 2.TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. 3.TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: India ratified the WTO's Trade Facilitation Agreement in April 2016, and the TFA was concluded at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference. Statement 3 is wrong, because the TFA entered into force on 22 February 2017.

  • ✓ 1. India handed its instrument of ratification to the WTO Director-General in April 2016 and was the 76th WTO member to accept the TFA.
  • ✓ 2. WTO members concluded the TFA at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference, so it belongs to the Bali package.
  • ✗ 3. The TFA came into force only when two-thirds of WTO members had ratified it, on 22 February 2017, not in January 2016.

Remember · WTO Trade Facilitation Agreement: concluded at Bali (Dec 2013), India ratified April 2016, in force 22 February 2017.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2017, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to 'IFC Masala Bonds', sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. 1.The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
  2. 2.They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Masala bonds were first issued in November 2014 by the International Finance Corporation (IFC), the private-sector lending member of the World Bank Group, as offshore bonds denominated in Indian rupees. In September 2015 RBI opened the same route to any Indian corporate or body corporate, so rupee bonds sold abroad became a debt-raising tool for both public and private companies.

  • ✓ 1. IFC is a member of the World Bank Group; its first Masala bonds were 10-year offshore rupee bonds listed on the London Stock Exchange.
  • ✓ 2. The bonds are denominated in rupees, so the currency risk lies with the foreign investor. RBI's framework of 29 September 2015 lets any corporate or body corporate issue them, public or private, as borrowing within ECB policy.

Remember · Masala bond = rupee-denominated bond issued abroad; first issuer IFC (World Bank Group), Nov 2014; RBI framework Sept 2015 under ECB; exchange-rate risk borne by the investor.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms 'amber box, blue box and green box' in the news?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) WTO affairs

The coloured 'boxes' are the WTO's way of classifying farm subsidies under the Agreement on Agriculture, borrowed from traffic lights. Green box support is allowed freely, amber box support distorts trade and must be reduced, and blue box support is tied to programmes that limit production.

  • ✓ (a) The WTO backgrounder on domestic support explains that subsidies are grouped into green (permitted), amber (to be reduced) and, in agriculture, a blue box for production-limiting programmes.
  • ✗ (c) UNFCCC talks use terms like NDCs, Annex I and CDM, not subsidy boxes.
  • ✗ (d) An India-EU free trade agreement would negotiate tariffs and market access; the box classification belongs to the multilateral WTO Agreement on Agriculture.

Remember · WTO farm subsidy boxes: green = minimal trade distortion, allowed; amber = trade-distorting, capped and reduced; blue = production-limiting; no red box in agriculture.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF's SDR?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Renminbi

On 30 November 2015 the IMF Executive Board, in its five-yearly review of the Special Drawing Right (SDR), decided that China's renminbi met the criteria and would join the SDR basket as its fifth currency from 1 October 2016.

  • ✓ (d) The renminbi was declared a 'freely usable' currency and added to the basket alongside the U.S. dollar, euro, Japanese yen and British pound.
  • ✗ (c) The Indian rupee has never been in the SDR basket; it is not a fully convertible currency on the capital account.
  • ✗ (a) The key question in the 2015 review was whether the renminbi qualified; the Russian rouble and the South African rand are not in the SDR basket.

Remember · SDR basket since 1 Oct 2016: U.S. dollar, euro, Chinese renminbi, Japanese yen, British pound (five currencies). The SDR is the IMF's reserve asset, not a currency.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

  1. 1.IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
  2. 2.The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC's meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The IMFC is the ministerial-level committee of the IMF's Board of Governors. It meets twice a year, reviews developments in the world monetary and financial system and, though it has no formal decision-making power, gives strategic direction to the Fund's work; the World Bank is among the institutions that attend as observers.

  • ✓ 1. The IMF describes the IMFC as advising the Board of Governors on the international monetary and financial system and as a key instrument for giving strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund.
  • ✓ 2. The IMF factsheet states that several international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in IMFC meetings.

Remember · IMFC: 25 members (mirrors the IMF Executive Board), meets at the Spring and Annual Meetings, advisory only, works by consensus; World Bank attends as an observer.

Sources

  • IMF Factsheet: A Guide to Committees, Groups, and Clubs (IMFC section) ↗ “Although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the Fund. … A number of international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC's meetings.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Which of the following best describes the term 'import cover', sometimes seen in the news?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country's international reserves

Import cover is a reserve-adequacy measure: foreign exchange reserves divided by the average monthly import bill, so it tells how many months of imports the reserves could pay for if all other inflows stopped. That is why it is always quoted in months.

  • ✓ (d) The Economic Survey 2024-25 reports India's import cover as 10.9 months (December 2024) and notes that this exceeds the IMF's recommended three months for emerging economies.
  • ✗ (a) Imports as a share of GDP is a measure of import dependence or openness, not of reserve adequacy.
  • ✗ (c) The ratio of exports to imports describes the trade balance between partners; it says nothing about how long reserves would last.

Remember · Import cover = forex reserves ÷ monthly imports, expressed in months. A common rule of thumb is at least three months.

Sources

  • Ministry of Finance: Economic Survey 2024-25, Ch 3 (External Sector) ↗ “The import cover, a crucial indicator of external sector stability, stood at 10.9 months as of December 2024. … India's forex reserves are sufficient to cover 90 per cent of external debt and provide an import cover of more than ten months, thereby safeguarding against external vulnerabilities.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) World Bank

The World Bank Group published the Ease of Doing Business ranking in its annual Doing Business report. In the 2016 edition, released in October 2015, it ranked India 130th out of 189 economies.

  • ✓ (c) The ranking came from the World Bank Group's Doing Business report, which measured business regulations for local firms in 190 economies. The 2016 edition placed India 130th of 189, up from 142nd.
  • ✗ (b) The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report, a different index, not the Ease of Doing Business ranking.
  • ✗ (a) The OECD does not compile the Ease of Doing Business ranking.
  • ✗ (d) The WTO deals with trade rules and disputes; it does not rank countries on ease of doing business.
  • • Since then The World Bank Group discontinued the Doing Business report on 16 September 2021 after data irregularities were found in the 2018 and 2020 editions. The ranking is no longer published; the answer stands as of the exam year.

Remember · The Ease of Doing Business ranking was issued by the World Bank Group (Doing Business report; discontinued in September 2021).

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
  2. 2.It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was a trade and investment agreement signed on 4 February 2016 by twelve countries. It was not a maritime-security alliance, and it did not cover every Pacific Rim country other than China and Russia, so neither statement is correct.

  • ✗ 1. Only twelve countries signed: the United States, Japan, Canada, Mexico, Australia, New Zealand, Chile, Peru, Singapore, Malaysia, Brunei and Vietnam. Many other Pacific Rim economies, such as South Korea, Indonesia, the Philippines and Thailand, were not signatories.
  • ✗ 2. The ministers' statement calls it an agreement to set a new standard for trade and investment. It is an economic agreement, not a security alliance.
  • • Since then The United States told the other signatories in 2017 that it did not intend to join. The remaining eleven concluded the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP), which entered into force on 30 December 2018.

Remember · The TPP (signed 4 February 2016) was a 12-country trade and investment pact, not a maritime-security alliance, and it left out many Pacific Rim economies.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The term 'Base Erosion and Profit Shifting' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies

Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) means tax-planning strategies by which multinational companies use gaps in tax rules to move profits artificially to low-tax or no-tax places. The OECD/G20 BEPS Project is the global effort to curb this, so 'curbing tax evasion by multinational companies' is the closest option.

  • ✓ (b) BEPS is about multinationals shifting profits to low or no-tax locations to avoid paying tax. The OECD calls it tax avoidance; of the four options, this is the only one about tax.
  • ✗ (c) Exploitation of a country's genetic resources by companies is the issue of biopiracy and access-and-benefit-sharing, not profit shifting.
  • ✗ (d) Ignoring environmental costs in development projects is a matter for environmental impact assessment, not for tax rules.

Remember · BEPS = multinationals shifting profits to low-tax places to cut tax; countered by the OECD/G20 BEPS Project (15 actions) so that profits are taxed where value is created.

Sources

  • OECD: Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) ↗ “relates to tax planning strategies that multinational enterprises use to exploit loopholes in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations as a way to avoid paying tax”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
  2. 2.The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 only

The New Development Bank (NDB) was set up by the BRICS countries, not by APEC, and its headquarters is in Shanghai. Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.

  • ✗ 1. The NDB was established by the BRICS countries; its founding agreement was signed at the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza in 2014. It is not an APEC body.
  • ✓ 2. The NDB is headquartered in Shanghai; it moved into its permanent HQ there in 2021.
  • • Since then Since 2016 the NDB has admitted new members, for example Bangladesh, Egypt, UAE and Uruguay in 2021, and it has set up regional offices, including one in GIFT City, Gujarat, in 2022 (NDB website).

Remember · NDB = the BRICS bank (agreement signed at Fortaleza, 2014; first President K.V. Kamath of India), headquartered in Shanghai. It is not an APEC body.

Sources

  • New Development Bank: Who we are ↗ “Established in 2015 by BRICS countries, the New Development Bank is a multilateral development bank aimed at mobilising resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other EMDCs. … The Agreement for establishing NDB was signed during the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza by the leaders. … NDB moved to its permanent HQ in Shanghai.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government's 'Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme' and 'Gold Monetization Scheme'?

  1. 1.To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy
  2. 2.To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
  3. 3.To reduce India's dependence on gold imports

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Both schemes, introduced in 2015, aim to bring gold held by Indian households into productive use and to cut the country's need to import gold. Neither is meant to attract foreign direct investment into the gold or jewellery trade.

  • ✓ 1. The Gold Monetisation Scheme is meant to mobilise idle gold held by households and institutions and put it to productive use; the Sovereign Gold Bond gives savers a paper substitute for buying physical gold.
  • ✗ 2. Neither scheme deals with FDI. They are about domestic gold holdings and gold bonds issued by the Government (through the RBI), not about foreign investment in gold or jewellery.
  • ✓ 3. Since most gold demand is met by imports, shifting demand from physical gold to bonds, and putting household gold back into circulation, reduces import dependence and helps keep the current account deficit in check.
  • • Since then The Medium and Long Term Gold Deposit components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued from 26 March 2025 (Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance). The answer as it stood in 2016 is unchanged.

Remember · Sovereign Gold Bond and Gold Monetisation Scheme (2015): mobilise household gold and cut gold imports; they are not FDI schemes.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

'Global Financial Stability Report' is prepared by the

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund

The Global Financial Stability Report is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), prepared by its Monetary and Capital Markets Department. It assesses the global financial system and the risks to its stability.

  • ✓ (b) The IMF issues the report twice a year, looking at global financial markets, systemic risks and emerging-market financing.
  • ✗ (a) The European Central Bank publishes its own Financial Stability Review, which covers the euro area, not the world.
  • ✗ (c) The IBRD (World Bank) is known for reports such as Global Economic Prospects and the World Development Report, not this one.

Remember · Global Financial Stability Report = IMF. Do not mix it up with the World Bank's Global Economic Prospects or the OECD's Economic Outlook.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

The term 'Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership' often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) ASEAN

RCEP is a trade agreement led by ASEAN, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations. Its negotiations were launched in November 2012 by the ten ASEAN members together with ASEAN's six free trade partners: Australia, China, India, Japan, Korea and New Zealand.

  • ✓ (b) ASEAN adopted the RCEP framework and drove the talks, on the principle of ASEAN centrality.
  • ✗ (a) The G20 is a forum of major economies for financial and economic coordination; it did not negotiate RCEP.
  • ✗ (c) The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation deals mainly with regional security and cooperation in Eurasia, not this trade pact.
  • ✗ (d) SAARC is a South Asian grouping and was not involved in RCEP.
  • • Since then The RCEP Agreement was signed on 15 November 2020 by ASEAN's ten members with Australia, China, Japan, Republic of Korea and New Zealand; India was not among the signatories (ASEAN).

Remember · RCEP = ASEAN plus its six FTA partners (Australia, China, India, Japan, Korea, New Zealand); talks launched November 2012 at Phnom Penh.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

'European Stability Mechanism', sometimes seen in the news, is an

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries

The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) is the permanent rescue fund of the euro area. It lends money and gives other financial help to euro area countries in severe financial distress, acting as a lender of last resort. Strictly, the ESM calls itself an intergovernmental organisation of the euro-area states rather than an EU agency, so (b) is the closest option.

  • ✓ (b) Set up on 8 October 2012 as the successor to the temporary European Financial Stability Facility, the ESM gives loans and other assistance to euro area members that cannot borrow from markets at sustainable rates.
  • ✗ (a) Refugee arrivals are handled through other EU policies and funds; the ESM is a financial crisis fund and has no refugee role.
  • ✗ (c) Trade agreements are dealt with by the EU's own institutions. The ESM is a financial-crisis fund and has no trade role.
  • ✗ (d) The ESM does not settle disputes among members; it lends money to countries in financial trouble.

Remember · ESM (set up 2012) is the permanent euro-area bailout fund, successor to the EFSF; it lends to eurozone countries in severe financial distress.

Sources

  • Who we are (European Stability Mechanism), intergovernmental status ↗ “The European Stability Mechanism is an intergovernmental organisation established by member states of the euro area in 2012. … The ESM carries out this mission by providing loans and other types of financial assistance to member states that are experiencing or are threatened by severe financial distress.”
  • History (European Stability Mechanism) ↗ “The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) was set up on 8 October 2012 as a successor to the EFSF. It is a permanent solution for a problem that arose early in the sovereign debt crisis”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2016, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 1 Oct 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

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