Minimalist IAS
Economy & social development

Prelims · Economy & social development · 53 questions

External sector & international economic bodies

Every UPSC Prelims question on this topic, 2016–2026, newest first. Tap an option to check yourself; the answer and explanation open below it.

External sector & international economic bodies questions per year: 2016: 3, 2017: 4, 2018: 1, 2019: 3, 2020: 6, 2021: 2, 2022: 3, 2023: 2, 2024: 1, 2025: 1, 2026: 0 Asked in 10 of 11 years · most in 2020 (6)

UPSC syllabus: “Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.” See the full syllabus →

"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) International Monetary Fund

Both are emergency lending windows of the International Monetary Fund. They give quick money to a member country hit by an urgent balance of payments need when a full IMF programme is not needed or not possible; the RCF is the concessional (low-income country) version.

  • ✓ (b) The IMF's Annual Report 2022 calls the Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) and the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) its emergency financing instruments for urgent balance of payments needs.
  • ✗ (d) The World Bank lends for long-term development projects and programmes. Short-term balance of payments rescue is the IMF's job, and the IMF says it does not lend for specific projects.
  • ✗ (a) The Asian Development Bank is a regional development lender for Asia and the Pacific; the RFI and RCF are not its facilities.

Remember · IMF emergency finance: RFI for any member with an urgent balance of payments need; RCF, on concessional terms, for low-income members through the PRGT.

Sources

  • IMF Annual Report 2022 — Lending ↗ “the Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) and the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI), in order to ensure that member countries have continued access to the IMF’s emergency financing should urgent balance of payments needs arise … IMF lending falls into two categories: loans at interest rates determined by an average of those prevailing among the world’s main currencies and loans to low-income countries on concessional terms.”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
  2. 2.An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
  3. 3.An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

NEER is a trade-weighted index of the rupee against partner currencies, so a rise means the rupee has appreciated. REER is NEER adjusted for relative prices: a rising REER makes Indian goods dearer abroad, which hurts competitiveness. Higher Indian inflation than abroad pushes REER up faster than NEER, widening the gap.

  • ✓ 1. The RBI builds NEER as a weighted average of the rupee's bilateral exchange rates with trading partners; the index rises when the rupee appreciates against that basket.
  • ✗ 2. A higher REER means the rupee is stronger in real terms, so exports cost more and imports less. The Economic Survey 2008-09 read an REER of 114.09 as a 14.1 per cent overvaluation of the rupee — a loss of competitiveness.
  • ✓ 3. REER is NEER corrected for inflation differentials with trading partners. If Indian inflation keeps rising faster than theirs, REER climbs even when NEER is flat, so the two indices drift apart.

Remember · NEER up = rupee appreciated in nominal terms. REER up = rupee dearer in real terms = exports less competitive. The inflation differential is what separates REER from NEER.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. 1.If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
  2. 2.If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
  3. 3.If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

When the RBI buys government securities it pays out money and raises the money supply, which would feed inflation, so statement 1 is wrong. Selling dollars supports a falling rupee, and a fall in US or EU interest rates draws funds into India, which the RBI soaks up by buying dollars.

  • ✗ 1. Buying bonds in open market operations adds reserves to the banking system and expands money supply. To fight high inflation the RBI would do the opposite and sell securities to absorb money.
  • ✓ 2. Under India's managed float the RBI intervenes in the currency market. Selling dollars from its reserves raises the supply of dollars and eases the pressure on a rapidly weakening rupee.
  • ✓ 3. Funds move to where returns are higher. Lower rates in the USA or EU make Indian assets more attractive, dollars flow in and the rupee tends to rise; the RBI buys those dollars to smooth the rise and add to reserves.

Remember · RBI buys bonds = injects money (not an anti-inflation step). RBI sells dollars = defends a falling rupee. Capital inflows = RBI buys dollars.

📘 Read it in NCERT: Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 3 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 6 (practise this chapter) · Class 12 Introductory Macroeconomics, Ch 6 (practise this chapter)

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements:

  1. 1.It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
  2. 2.It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the DSSI was agreed in November 2020 by the G20 along with the Paris Club of official creditors. Its purpose is to restructure, case by case, the debt of low-income countries whose debt has become unsustainable.

  • ✓ 1. The G20 and the Paris Club endorsed it together in November 2020. It brings Paris Club creditors and the other G20 official bilateral creditors into one coordinated process.
  • ✓ 2. It targets low-income countries with unsustainable debt. Each eligible country's request is handled case by case by a creditor committee, with the IMF and World Bank supporting the talks through their debt sustainability analysis.

Remember · G20 Common Framework (November 2020): G20 together with the Paris Club; case-by-case debt treatment for low-income countries with unsustainable debt, through creditor committees.

Sources

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1.They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
  2. 2.The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

India's FDI policy lets foreign-owned e-commerce firms run only a marketplace, not an inventory model, so they cannot sell goods they own. And a seller in which the marketplace or its group companies hold any equity cannot sell on that platform at all — the bar is outright, not a matter of degree — so both statements fail.

  • ✗ 1. 100% FDI is allowed only in the marketplace model; FDI is not permitted in the inventory-based model. A marketplace that owns or controls the goods sold becomes an inventory model, so a foreign-owned platform cannot sell its own stock.
  • ✗ 2. Press Note 2 (2018) does not set a permitted level of ownership: any entity with equity participation by the marketplace or its group companies, or whose inventory they control, cannot sell on that platform. Owning sellers on the platform is barred, not merely limited.

Remember · FDI in e-commerce: 100% automatic in the marketplace model; none in the inventory model. Sellers with marketplace-group equity cannot sell on that platform (Press Note 2, 2018).

Sources

  • DPIIT, Press Note No. 2 (2018 Series) — FDI in e-commerce ↗ “E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such an ownership or control over the inventory will render the business into inventory based model. … having equity participation by e-commerce marketplace entity or its group companies, or having control on its inventory by e-commerce marketplace entity or its group companies, will not be permitted to sell its products on the platform”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

Prelims 2022 · Q61

Hard Dropped by UPSC

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1.Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
  2. 2.Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
  3. 3.Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Why UPSC dropped it · explanation

UPSC dropped this question from evaluation in its final answer key.

UPSC dropped this question from evaluation in its final answer key. The facts it tests: tighter US monetary policy can pull capital out of emerging economies (statement 1), and a weaker domestic currency raises, not lowers, the currency risk on foreign-currency borrowing (statement 3 is wrong).

  • ✓ 1. When the US Federal Reserve tightens, spillovers to emerging market economies can trigger capital outflows and currency depreciation, as the RBI's Financial Stability Report of June 2022 noted.
  • • 2. Arguable, which is probably why the question was dropped. Capital flight weakens the rupee and raises risk premia, so servicing dollar loans costs more in rupee terms; whether the interest cost itself rises depends on whether the loan carries a floating rate.
  • ✗ 3. Most ECBs are in US dollars, so a fall in the rupee raises the rupee cost of interest and principal. That increases the currency risk unless the borrower has hedged; about 56 per cent of ECB loans were hedged in 2022.

Remember · Fed tightening can trigger capital flight from emerging markets; a weaker rupee makes unhedged dollar borrowing (ECB) costlier to repay, so currency risk rises.

Sources

  • Reserve Bank of India, Financial Stability Report, June 2022 ↗ “The evolving outlook is particularly challenging for emerging market economies (EMEs) that face rising indebtedness, currency depreciations, capital outflows and reserve losses … Nearly 80 per cent of the ECB are denominated in US dollars and 5 per cent each are denominated in Euro and Japanese yen. A predominant component (56 per cent) of ECB loans are hedged”

Question and answer: UPSC's official GS Paper I (2022, Series A) — paper ↗ · answer key ↗. Explanation: Minimalist IAS, checked 30 Sept 2026 (how we verify). Permalink ·

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